The Arabs overran several smaller Kingdoms in Gujarat, but were supposedly defeated by Jayabhata of Nandipuri. Naghabhata's forces met with the Arab contigent, probably somewhere in Western Malwa. Since the inscriptions of the battle were undated, it is not known if it was subsequent invasion following the Navasari battle or if it was a different Arab contigent of the same invasion.
Jayabhata IV's claimed defeat of the Arabs took place in 735-36 C.E. in Saurashtra. Jayabhata was most likely a vassal of the ruling Maitrakas, who as mentioned before were based at Vallabhi in Saurashtra, and was fighting under them. At any rate, this victory was not decisive and did not halt the Arab advance into Gujarat. The Arabs advanced further south and were defeated several years later (738-739 C.E.) by the Chalukyas at Navsari. It was only here that the Arab advance was stopped, and there are no records of the Arabs advancing any further than Navsari. Moreover, in the Navsari plate inscriptions of Avanijanashraya Pulakesi, it is stated that the Arabs defeated and overran Saurashtra (before their defeat at Navsari), along with a host of other minor principalities.
As far as we know, the Gurjara king Nagabhata had nothing to do with this defence of Gujarat (as you apparently tried to claim). He was ruling in Malwa and defeated a separate Arab invasion in his lands, which came via Rajasthan rather than via Saurashtra.
The Rohilkhand analogy does not apply here since Afghanistan is a long way from Uttar Pradesh. Mount Abu, on the other hand, is barely even in Rajasthan
The example of Rohilkhand was just meant to show that just because a region is named after a certain people, doesn't mean that the said people are native to the region. A better analogy for the Gujarat/Gurjar case would be that of France and the Franks. The Franks were Germanic tribesmen who had their origins in the modern-day Low Countries and western Germany, i.e. the areas immediately northeast of modern-day France. Following the collapse of the Western Roman Empire, they conquered most of modern-day France and gave it its present name (
Francia, i.e. Land of the Franks). This doesn't mean that the Franks were native to France.
BTW, the city of Gujranwala in the Panjab also derives its name from the Gurjars. So are Gurjars native to Panjab?
Bharatka did not "conquer" Gujarat. The Gupta Empire acquired Gujarat between 388 to 401, but the Maitraka dynasty was founded much later in 475. The original general or whoever it was that 'conquered' Gujarat was probably deceased or too old and senile to have started the Maitraka Dynasty.
You're right, Bhatarka did not conquer Gujarat. That was an error on my part. He seems to have established an independent dynasty in Gujarat after the central authority of the Guptas decayed.
Gujarat is either extreme West India, or (the Southern most region of) North West India
It is Western India, nothing "extreme" about it. This is seriously the first time I have ever heard of Gujarat being called a part of NW India. Can you show me a single historian of India who uses the term "Northwest India" in reference to Gujarat? Like I said, this term is historically used to refer to Panjab, Kashmir, Sindh, and NWFP. Even Rajasthan would also be better described as Western India than NW India.
If Gujarat is not North West India based on geography, then Uttarkhand is not North India, but North-East India based on that same logic.
That doesn't make the slightest bit of sense.
Which people mentioned are not native to Gujarat? Solankis, Chauhans and Gohils mentioned, are native Guajratis. If they are not native, then I don't know what a native Gujarati is. Or are you suggesting that only the Adivasi tribals are the real and only Gujaratis?
Solankis, Chauhans, and Gohils all most likely have their origins in modern Rajasthan. If these Rajputs are "native" to Gujarat, then I can claim Chalukyas and Rashtrakutas as "natives" of Andhra.
The "real" Gujaratis would be those people who have lived in the territory of the modern Gujarat since Harappan times, or before. This would include the Adivasis, yes, but there were clearly other groups in Gujarat as well, thousands of years before any of these Rajput clans migrated to Gujarat. The existence of such ancient cities as Lothal proves that there was a substantial human population in Gujarat with a sophisticated civilization long before these warrior migrations from outside.
Chalukyas were higher Caste Hindus. Do you think that these higher Caste Hindus were native to Karnataka? No. The same way you mention that Gujarat was ruled by people outside Gujarat that migrated and settled there, those Chalukyas were also migrants or conquerors of Karnataka from the North West.
The only problem is that we have solid evidence that the Gurjars who ruled Gujarat were from outside Gujarat, but there is no such evidence that Chalukyas were from outside of Karnataka. Varnas like kshatriya, vaisya, shudra, etc. are simply ritual labels given by Brahmins to those that are considered ritually inferior. They don't tell much about the actual ethnic origins of people. The varna status of certain groups can be raised and lowered, and indeed have been throughout history. Especially in South India and the Deccan, local dynasties who gained power and influence would patronize/bribe brahmins to construct bogus genealogies and raise their varna status from shudra to kshatriya, thus granting their rule more legitimacy. Examples of such ritual elevations and genealogical fabrications can be seen with the Cholas, Kakatiyas, and Marathas under Shivaji, among others. Claiming descent from Ayodhya was also a popular meme, and not just among Indian rulers, as discussed previously in the thread.
The bottom line is that, given all of our current information, it is very, very likely that the Chalukyas were natives of Karnataka.
People have misconstrued the authors intened usage of the term "indigenous". The author implied that the Chalukyas were not outsiders (as in foreigners from outside South Asia) but that they were Brahmins, native to India.
Actually, the author explicitly says that the Chalukyas "belonged to the
Karnataka country".
It doesn't seem like the author agrees with your view that all brahmins are originally from North India. So again, either the author is wrong, you are wrong, or both.