I would exclude Madhya Pradesh, as I consider that to be more Central India than North, but otherwise the states shown above can be taken to constitute "North India".
Yeah sure, because then we would have to count the Chandels, Bundelas, Ahoms etc and their deeds right?
One might also add West Panjab (Pakistan) and Sindh to the definition since, in terms of history and geography, these regions form a continuum with the rest of 'North India'.
Hilariously, while Sindh is somehow clubbed in north instead of west .. the Chandel and Bundela territories become central India and hence out of the equation. : D
Now, with the exceptions of Kashmir and Uttarakhand (until the mid-14th century), and Rajasthan, the whole region described above was dominated by Turks since the early 13th century. We can squabble over the precise territorial extent of 'North India' and the exact percentage of this territory which was under Turkish dominion, but the important fact is that the the most productive and densely-populated lands in India, i.e. those of the greater Indo-Gangetic plain stretching from Sindh/Panjab to Bihar/Bengal, were under the political domination of foreigners. This domination by foreigners would continue more or less from the 13th to the 18th centuries, as I stated previously (in the western parts of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, the domination lasted even longer than that). And this vast swathe of land does indeed constitute "most of North India". Even if you disagree with the precise territorial definitions, it cannot be denied that this territory held the majority of North India's population and produced the greater part of its revenue. It is population and especially revenue which matters here, and in North India, the greater part of both were subject to foreign rulers during the time period I specified.
Good luck adding the states as you please and subtracting likewise.
Definitions morph from "most of north India" to "most productive and densely-populated lands in India".
Timelines shift from "13-18th centuries" to "more or less mid 14th to 18th".
The very point I was debating has changed, so no use chasing it any further.
No. The Mongol invasions, if anything, hurt the 'politico-military balance' of the Turks in India, and served to further destabilize an already turbulent NW frontier. The Mongols cut off Delhi's access to the vital military resources of Central Asia, namely Turkish slave-warriors and horses.
The invasions drove numerous Turkish tribes like khiljis and tughlaqs from central asia to India. How does that not boost resources but create problem for the Turks?
Besides I'm not talking of "politico-military balance of Turks" themselves. I'm talking about the "equation between Turks and natives" that got changed with this influx of Turkish tribes in India.
The loss of access to these resources forced Delhi to rely increasingly on Afghan and even Indian troops rather than Turks, and local breeds of horses rather than those from Central Asia.
Mongols didn't have permanent occupation of central Asia for a long time. All they did was raid the lands and retreat. Even in the thick of Mongol invasions when they chased Jelaluddin Khwarizm, there were Khilji, Tughlaq etc Turkish troops in Multan, Kabul and other cities, whom Jelaluddin even used against Mongols.
Mongols were an interim and periodic entity, not a permanently posted enemy by Delhi's side. Moreover, Mongols seized to be a threat to India after Chingiz. Timur was even allied to his contemporary Mongol chief.
As for the Turkish warriors and elites, their displacement only caused more political confusion and turmoil in NW India.
I don't see what political confusions were there. One dynasty replaced the other at the top. How is that negating the numerical advantage out to the rising inflow of Turks from central Asia. For a moment lets assume there was a political turmoil. The turmoil was momentary and we don't see Turkish armies killing each other for that. Political turmoil passed, Turks have more numbers by every passing day, now what?
If we started looking at such turmoils and confusions, then the ones in native Kingdoms would flood our brains and memories out. Are we compensating for that yet?
Real turmoils were in central asia and afghanistan due to Mongols, from where the likes of Khiljis and Tughlaqs came to India. Who replaced older Turks in Delhi? Khiljis. Who led the only major Turkish expansion in India? Khiljis.
The Turkish ruler of Khwarezm, Jalaluddin Mangbarni, had fled to India in the wake of Genghis Khan's invasion, and captured Uch in the Indus Valley. Mangabarni also extended an offer of alliance to Iltutmish, proposing that they join forces against the Mongols. However, Iltutmish actually repudiated this offer, fearing that it would provoke Genghis to advance against Delhi. It proved to be a wise move, as Genghis had invaded Sindh in pursuit of Mangbarni and massacred his forces, but decided not to continue on to the Delhi doab.
It is true that Delhi Turks feared Mongols and Mongols were heavy for them to handle. But in the peak of their power the Mongols rarely waged full-on campaigns against Delhi based Turks. The ones who bore the brunt of Mongols then were central Asian powers like Khwarizm.
The raids that took place in Indian sites like Lahore and Delhi etc were only focused on looting (not occupation) and took place after Mongols were weakened and fragmented due to the demise of Chingiz.
The displacement caused by the Mongols also extended into parts of Afghanistan.
I'm not concerned about Afghanistan as that is not a part of Delhi Turks Kingdom.
In sum, these displacements and others could hardly be said to have benefited the 'politico-military' balance of the Turks. Rather, they, along with the Mongols themselves, provided additional external threats and destabilizing factors that prevented a concerted Turkish expansion into other parts of India until the early 1300s.
Like I said before, Turks in India were threatened only till Chingiz was there. Not when his Khanate had disintegrated into weaker parts. That is when central asian Turks had already come to India in good number. That is when Alauddin comes on the scene. And that is when the only major Turkish expansion in India began .... with Mongol threat past its prime and Turkish military ranks in Delhi swollen by migrations.
There was never a grand Mongol invasion of Delhi Sultanate. Mongol raids did resume later on but with only half the power .. there was no single powerful khanate and there was no Chingiz ka-khan .. just seasonal raiding parties that were looking for loot and plunder.
The Mongol raids started resulting into their defeats and as early as 1292, right after Khiljis came to throne, around 4,000 Mongol of a divisinal army (that was usually not more than 10k-20k) converted to Islam and settled in Mongolpuri.
The "recovering of lost ground" by native rulers only occurred in a few places, like in South India where the Sultanate of Madurai was totally uprooted and conquered by Vijayanagar (which itself was founded in course of a rebellion against Turkish rule).
I was talking in context of north India. Sorry if I haven't been clear enough. As far as the south is concerned. In the long run Turks eventually lost there as well.
Most of the time, however, when centralized Islamic empires collapsed,
Collapses in this case were political not military. Obviously a viable replacement comes in eventually.
they were simply replaced by a number of regionalized Islamic states, rather than resurgent Hindu kingdoms. We have seen this happen numerous times on various levels: Delhi Sultanat getting replaced by the regional sultanates of Jaunpur, Bengal, Gujarat, Malwa, and Bahmanis in 14th century,
Delhi Sultanate wasn't replaced by Jaunpur, Bengal, Gujarat, Malwa, and Bahmanis; it rather got reduced back to core region and the expanded territories became new sultanates. After fragmentation, individually these sultanates were as strong and weak as any other native Kingdom.
In fact, it has struck me that, with few exceptions, that most of the Indo-Gangetic Plain (which constitutes the greater part of North India) has been ruled almost continuously by foreigners from the 13th century all the way to 1947 itself.
After 17th century the Mughals were gradually reduced to the status of remote control switches and the British hadn't arrived yet. It was the Marathas who were running the show from background. Also we're forgetting Sikhs and Jats as well. They were not mountain militia. They ruled plains.
Yes, they can be called pan-Indian, and they were definitely pan-North Indian.
Gujarat and Malwa were annexed under the Khaljis, and Rajasthan subjugated by Alauddin during his 10-year long campaign. Maharashtra was occupied and Deogir/Daulatabad became the center of Turkish power south of the Vindhyas. Parts of Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu were all temporarily brought under the Turkish fold. The nobles in the Indo-Gangetic Plain had been put in line, and the authority of the center was relatively strong throughout North India. Orissa too was invaded and subjugated by Ghiyasuddin Tughluq.
Indeed, for a brief period from c.1310-1340, the political and military influence if not actual rule of the Delhi Sultanat extended from the Himalayan foothills to southern Tamil Nadu. Howeever, many of these newly-conquered territories, especially those south of the Vindhyas, would be rapidly lost from c.1340, either to regional Muslim governors who declared independence, or to rebelling Hindu kings and chieftains who formed new states in the region (of which Vijayanagar was the most important).
I can cite as many instances where native states won back territories and defeated many Sultanates in wars in multiple directions.
What do these "temporary" expansions of 10-20 years mean anyway in the huge historical timelines in context? Anyone else with a military machine and armored heavy cavalry advantage over the enemies can rally in subjugate for a period. It is the consistency that matters. I don't see any mentionable Mughals or Turks in this country today. But I can see the natives .. all of them. Jats, Rajputs, Sikhs, Marathas and so many others.
Turks were active in the countryside of North India, albeit through intermediaries. They couldn't have obtained tax revenues from the peasant masses otherwise. They had to use intermediaries since the government was not bureaucratized enough for a direct collection of taxes throughout the empire. Most Hindu states relied on some sort of intermediaries as well for tax collection.
Intermediaries couldn't be as effective for the foreigners as they were for native rulers. Otherwise, tax revenues would not he withheld and raids and skirmishes wouldn't happen; whenever Turk army numbers dropped in the garrisons to fight a regular army elsewhere.
Except the Indians were not the only ones who lived under centuries of Islamic rule and did not convert. I already mentioned the southern Europeans who were under centuries of Ottoman rule, but were never converted. The Ottomans were also Turks, just like the Ghaznavids and most Sultans of Delhi. They all had their ultimate origins in the same place, i.e. the steppes of Central Asia. The present-day southern Europeans may hate the Turks for ruling over them for centuries, just like modern Hindus (especially of North India) may hate Turks for ruling over them for centuries, but the fact is that most of these Turkish rulers were not intent on converting the non-Muslim masses under their rule. With a few exceptions like Aurangzeb, most were far too pragmatic to attempt such a project. They were perfectly content with the Hindu masses, so long as they remained submissive to Islamic rule and continued to pay taxes. There was never a time, in the history of North India, when an Islamic state was overthrown by the Hindu masses, or even came close to being overthrown.
Why do we keep forgetting that rag tag masses grinded and deprived under taxes and subjugation of Islamic rule cannot overthrow a well oiled military beast.
Bare foots cannot overthrow a dashing armored cavalry.
Terror was used as a weapon to keep people in line, away from revolt and aggression. It is not without reason that all the foreign invaders and rulers from Arabs to Turks to Mughals .. used tactics like slaughtering of innocents enmasse, looting people and property alike, capturing slaves, burning cities and villages alike to induce this terror.
Then and only then would the natives let these "pragmatic" barbarians run their rules. And yes, in his initial days almost each Turkish ruler converted people in huge numbers at every chance he got.
Why do the Indian masses not overthrow the Pakistani terror monster for good?
Moreover, as
@nrupatunga has mentioned, Indian converts to Islam were not treated or viewed particularly well by the Turkish elites, so the social advantages that may accompany conversion in other cases did not exist during the Delhi Sultanat's domination of North India.
It still saved them from the utter humiliation and burden of being an infidel in an Islamic rule. It saved them from general massacre, their women from rape, their kids from slavery.
Indeed, the question we should be asking is not why more Indians did not convert to Islam (the numbers that ultimately did convert are still quite large, especially given the circumstances. South Asia has the largest population of Muslims in the whole world)
South Asia has the largest population of hindus as well and it is one of the most heavily populated areas in the world. So what ?
There will be a huge no. of people belonging to almost every religion.
but rather, how could a small minority of Muslim foreigners dominate the predominantly Hindu masses of North India for so long?
By inducing terror and maintaining standing heavy cavalries.
Hemu's army consisted of both Hindu and Muslim troops, as did the army of Sher Shah.
As did the army of Mahmud and few others after him. He was aware of that and was constantly recruiting Hindu soldiers while marching towards Delhi. His trusted general Hazi Khan Mewati even revenged his death by killing Bairam Khan in Gujarat later.
What's interesting, however, is the speed with which Kashmir was Islamized once Muslim rule was established (I don't know why you said Kashmir was out of reach of Turks until 1354, because it was being ruled by a Muslim dynasty since 1339). It only took a couple centuries for Islam to become firmly entrenched in Kashmir.
Just the valley. Turks weren't ruling entire Kashmir even later. Rinchan converted to Islam and after him the first Turkish dynasty came on the scene. Just check when that dynasty came to power. I might be off by one of two decades at best, thats all.
And who/what are "Chaks" and "Zulchu"?
Entities of J & K only. Chaks were a tribe of upper Indus (Dardus) that embraced Islam later. Some even became Sikhs later.
It reveals intense factionalism and lack of a centralized political order among the Turks in India, not some great resistance by the native Indians.
Turks were a politico-military power. As we all know their social interference was inconsistent at best. Politically and militarily Indias were as fragmented as the
later Turks if not more.
If resistance was right at the grassroots and the Indian peasantry was so militarized, why didn't they overthrow the Turks?
Because it is a peasent we're talking about. A man who has to sow and till the soil to arrange food for himself and family. If he went out up in arms against his rulers in open fields, what will his family eat?
And again, whether or not the Hindu masses converted to Islam was largely irrelevant. The difference in religion between rulers and ruled did not cause undue rural unrest
That is one of the reasons why large scale organized rebellions didn't take place.
, since the rule of the Sultans over the greater part of their Hindu subjects was quite indirect anyway (this reality of indirect rule was true even for the Hindu 'empires' that preceded the Delhi Sultanate). Since the Hindu masses in the history of pre-modern India have seldom caused trouble for the established political elites, whether they be Hindu or Muslim, there was no real reason for the Turkish sultans to expend much effort in grandiose projects like converting all of India to Islam (again, idealists like Aurangzeb being the exception). They were perfectly content with keeping the Hindu masses in a perpetually subservient position and using them as a source for their immense wealth, and this system of rural exploitation to support an opulent nobility (which soon came to include many Hindus as well as Muslims) and grandiloquent royal courts continued right up to modern times. The various foreign nobles which dominated North India from the 13th to the 18th centuries - Turks, Persians, Afghans, Mongols - all grew rich and successful at the expense of the North Indian peasant. One wonders how this was possible, when we are told that 'every Indian farmer's house had matchlocks'.[/quote]
Yeah so? You think a matchlock can defeat Mughal armies?
Matchlock is for individual self defense.
The question was why didn't more Hindu kings and chieftains revolt and establish large, independent kingdoms like Vijayanagar?
Following the collapse of the Delhi Sultanat, why did we see Muslim states in Bengal, Bihar-UP, Malwa, Gujarat, and Maharashtra rather than resurgent Hindu realms?
Surely, if the Hindus were politically dominant and the hold of Turks so tenuous, the collapse of Delhi would have meant the end of Muslim rule in India.
Because the only thing that fell was Delhi Sultanate's political clout and ability to grip far off regions under single central leadership.
There was no drop in their military power. Neither the Turk men went away nor their horses and military infrastructure.
You can't uproot a military state without equating the enemy on militarily strength, socially derived martial formations and unity.
Lets take an example. Rajputs not only had a deep rooted military tradition, clannish social hierarchy, bhayad (brotherhood); but also they quickly adopted tactics like maintaining standing medium cavalry in castles and conducting frontal dash raids etc.
That gave them a fair chance against the Turks. What lacks in the other areas is not the will to fight but a system that could build its semantics.
The communities at other places lacked all the elements I mentioned above. That is why, in north India Rajputs had the best record against Turks despite fighting them so extensively and constantly right in their neighborhood.
It is not so much about bravery, as it is about having fit traditions and capable systems in place that could resist and prevail over threats.
Yet none of them uprooted the Arabs from Sindh itself. In fact, Sindh was under near-continuous Muslim rule for the past 1300 years, and remains so even today.
Yet India in standing tall, with all its plurality, culture, civilizational glory, despite showing miraculous tolerance and stamina against millenniums of unabated excesses, genocides and plundering.
Like I said before. I don't see any mentionable Mughals or Turks in this country today, even when they ruled here for centuries. But I can see all the natives standing tall, even when they were on defensive from day one.
We always focus on the one time aggressor succeeds after 9 failed attempts. But we tend to forget how many times the defender defended against all odds.
The Islamization was well underway, though there were still large non-Muslim populations of course.
We know for sure that least the political elites and some powerful tribal/caste leaders converted, because by the 11th century Arab rule had ended and was replaced by indigenous Sindi Muslims. The Sumrah dynasty of Sind, which existed with various degrees of independence until 1351, was the first native Muslim dynasty to rule any part of India. Needless to say, the rise of indigenous Muslim dynasties presupposes a degree of conversion under Arab rule. We also know that conversions took place due to the proliferation of people who adopted Arabic names and carried the surname "al-Sindi". This certainly disproves as hyperbole any statement that "not a single convert was made".
I didn't expect it to be taken literally.
What is your source for this statement, and where is it from?
In fact, al-Hajjaj scolded Muhammad bin Qasim for being too lenient, and accepting subjugation by treaty rather than subjugating by force.
This is an extract of Chachnama cited at 'History of India as told by its own Historians volume i' pg 186, by H Elliott and Dowson. Exact page of Chachnama that he cites is written at footnote 1 in Urdu so I couldn't figure that.
'Chachnama' page 90, translation by Mirza Kalichbeg Fredunbeg.
The Ghaznavids and Ghorids were also fighting on multiple fronts and faced much more serious and competent enemies, namely the Turks from Central Asia.
So did the Indians.
First we are told that the Hindus were constantly and continuously resisting the Muslims, and that 'every Indian farmer had a matchlock', and now India was a 'struggling agrarian civilization'?
And how are the two contrary? read above. If the farmer wasn't struggling against Mughal hordes on his farm why would he keep a matchlock? Struggling doesn't mean he'll uproot Mughals single handedly. It is not a bazooka, it is a matchlock. All he wants is to defend self, family .. and if lucky the farm as well.
The people in the West were co-religionists but that was irrelevant, as it did not prevent wars between different Muslim powers. As mentioned before, it was precisely the powers in the West which posed the greatest threat to Muslim states based in North/Northwest India, as well as the non-Muslims of Central Asia like the Mongols.
My point was not on State but on religious demography beneath. The conversions and all.
As Isami asks rhetorically, "why should the army that defeats the Mongol be afraid of fighting the Hindu?" (Futuh al-Salatin, pg.284).
LoL .. yeah like NaikiDevi beat the manhood out of Mahmud, Chatrasal beat it out of Aurangzeb and so did Jats who dug the grave of Akbar out.
And what to say of Turks, they were so brave that Bakhtiyar Khilji ran out of Tibet upon hearing of a massive army building aginst him in the city upfront. He ran so hard that he entered India gloriously with 300 to 1000 cavalry left of all his troops.
But then why am I replying to philosophic rhetoric
Them ain't scared because the Hindus won't aggress first, when they do, it is only the regular armies of native Kingdoms.
And nor were the natives scared of a fight. Difference is of the philopohy of war, when to fight, whom to fight, how to fight, why to fight.
Am I supposed to expect a barely clad foot farmer to fight the armored heavy cavalry Turk?
A civilization where armies used to fight in fields with rules and farmers ploughed their farms nearby at the same time, cannot be expected to match the nomad's barbaric values.
If the Turk armies were so confident and fearless, why did the sprinting horses gradually sank into limited pockets? Why no complete and comprehensive victory in sight? Why so much and so long a fighting to maintain the hold? And why get evaporated eventually?
If they were so too brave, why did they have to assert it by words, than deeds?
As for the greatness of Iran or Iranians vis a vis India, a lot has been said already. I'll just add that Zoroastrians write about 100 years of India rule on Iran in their "MANUAL OF "KHSHNOOM" page 347.
I'm done with this debate. Thank you.
Regards,
Virendra