Last I checked, there was no nation-state by the name North India. Iran is.
Absurd logic, you forte.
Better luck next time.
I can do a comparison of Iran with the whole of India, but that would be unfair for India because of the vast population difference. Besides, this thread is full of whining North Indians, which is why I want to do a comparison between North Indian states and Iran. If a South Indian was whining about Iran, then I would compare South Indian states with Iran. But that's not the case here.
It would be better to compare Iran (pop. ~80 million) with a place like Bihar (pop. ~100 million) or Rajasthan (pop. ~70 million), than with the whole of India (pop. ~1.2 trillion).
Do you want to see the results? Surely, these stalwart, Hindu-Dharmic states will have better socioeconomic indices that backwards, mullah Iran?
Yes, World Bank released data, based on which nations formulate their development plans & enter into treaties/agreements is false, while your made-up data is credible. Another masterstroke.
My data is not made-up, and your graph is factually wrong. It has chosen to entirely exclude Iran for whatever reason.
As per the CIA World Factbook, Iran's GDP as per 2012 is $1.016 trillion.
Link:
https://www.cia.gov/library/publications/the-world-factbook/rankorder/2001rank.html
BTW, only about 25% of Iran's GDP comes from oil and gas. Iran is considered semi-developed by the U.N. and is self-reliant in many industries.
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What a retard. Check what happened to them in 11 years after Islamic conquest of Persia. Then check again, if there was a Islamic regime inside India after 11 years of Muslim attack.
How many Zoroastrians in Iran ? How many Hindu in India ?
You are fighting a lost battle. You have been exposed quite early.
Yes, what happened to them 11 years after the Islamic conquest of Persia? Please enlighten me.
And yes, there was an Islamic regime in India soon after the initial invasions.
Why does it matter how many Zoroastrians there are in Persia and how many Hindus in India? The Persians voluntarily chose to adopt a new religion, and they did not forsake their own language or culture while doing so. It was Persian culture, language, and civilization which spread into India during the medieval period, and not the other way around.
Yes, Sindh was India. Rest of Indian landmass/Indian people never existed
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Shows you perverted sense of geography
I understand that your intellectual faculties are very limited, but seriously, read what you yourself write. This is what you wrote:
Islam could not get a permanent footland in India till 1192. Nearly 500 years of successful resistance.
This statement is wrong, because Islam did get a permanent foothold in India in the 8th century itself, in the form of Sindh.
India hosts 1/6th of humanity. There are around 85% Hindus + indigenous religions in India. What % is Zoroastrian in Iran ?
Exactly. Because there are many times more Indians than Iranians, it is natural that new ideologies/beliefs would become predominant faster in Iran than in India (this was true even after the initial conversions of Iranians to Islam, when Iranians adopted Twelver Shi'ism en masse in later centuries).
However, you stated that Indians did not convert because of some great resistance of North Indians to Islam. If that's the case, why are there so many Muslims in North India? Why are Sindh, Kashmir, West Panjab, and East Bengal overwhelmingly Muslim?