Yes i meant turkic and not turkish which is an oguz dialect. his dialect was chagatai perhaps.You probably meant his mother tongue was some Turkic language, and not Turkish (spoken in present day Turkey).
Also, does lingua materna matter more than lingua franca? During Akbar's rule, wasn't Persian the court language, and also, was he not tolerant towards other languages? How did he compose Din-i-Illahi?
turks, sir, were a barbaric people so when they attacked persia, they were vanquished by the superior persian culture and language.
take a case
the term sipahsalar is a pewrsian meaning commander but turks had only primitive words as they were tribal which meant that they would promote the persian languiage for administration and literature and speak turkic languages in private.
that is what happened with safavids, Ottomans and mughals three turkic empires using persian language in courts. before 1920s, there was not much turkic literature in sciences for this but kemal turk changed all this.
it is better to call akbar a persianized turk.