Bengal Famine - Churchill deliberately let millions of Indians starve to death

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bose

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Yes, he hate the Indians so much that he intentionally deprived the poorest Bengalis food while giving food of those in civil service and military. At the same time he did not starve the poorest in the rest of the Indian subcontinent even if he is a rabid anti-Indian racist. This is I call the square knot argument...
There is no difference between Hitler & Churchill ... Both slaughtered millions and killers of humanity ... One was a victor while other was at the losing side ...
 

Assassin 2.0

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Yes, he hate the Indians so much that he intentionally deprived the poorest Bengalis food while giving food of those in civil service and military. At the same time he did not starve the poorest in the rest of the Indian subcontinent even if he is a rabid anti-Indian racist. This is I call the square knot argument...
Facts don't match with your logic.
He wanted indian army to fight his war in which we lost million soldiers if they will not provide food to them how they will fight for their interests they can do anything that's what they did.
People in civil service were required to run the empire who would have managed the resources which were going to London when war was going on During the war, India provided 196.7 million tonnes of coal, 6 million tonnes of iron ore and 1.12 million tonnes of steel. The Oxford Encyclopedia of Economic History, Volume 2, says: “35 per cent of India’s annual cotton textile production, amounting to about 5,000,000,000 yards, went into creating war material.”

Timber was a major war input and its export led to large-scale destruction of India’s extensive forests. The Energy and Resources Institute says, “During World War I, forest resources were severely depleted as large quantities of timber were removed to build ships and railway sleepers and to pay for Britain’s war efforts…World War II made even greater demand on the forest than World War I had done.”
So starving of 3 Million people is not enough to show a person's negativity towards a country cool 👊.
Other state's like punjab already have fertile land so it's particularly difficult to cause a famine their.
 

asianobserve

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There is no difference between Hitler & Churchill ... Both slaughtered millions and killers of humanity ... One was a victor while other was at the losing side ...
Please backread my posts. No, Churchill did not deliberately kill 3 Million Bengalis.
 

Assassin 2.0

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The fact is that there were more than enough food in other Indian provinces like Punjab to fill the shortfall in rice in Bengal due to bad harvest and closure of Burma, but inter-province protectionism prevented the access of these other roce or food sources in India.
Read the whole page from top and bottom punjab was not a sovereign place it was forced to send 1 million tons of wheat to UK if UK government wanted to feed poor of Bengal they could have bought food from punjab after all they couldn't deny them but but no one wanted that expense when aid donation were getting rejected who would have paid to feed them.
 

asianobserve

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Facts don't match with your logic.
He wanted indian army to fight his war in which we lost million soldiers if they will not provide food to them how they will fight for their interests they can do anything that's what they did.
People in civil service were required to run the empire who would have managed the resources which were going to London when war was going on During the war, India provided 196.7 million tonnes of coal, 6 million tonnes of iron ore and 1.12 million tonnes of steel. The Oxford Encyclopedia of Economic History, Volume 2, says: “35 per cent of India’s annual cotton textile production, amounting to about 5,000,000,000 yards, went into creating war material.”

Timber was a major war input and its export led to large-scale destruction of India’s extensive forests. The Energy and Resources Institute says, “During World War I, forest resources were severely depleted as large quantities of timber were removed to build ships and railway sleepers and to pay for Britain’s war efforts…World War II made even greater demand on the forest than World War I had done.”
So starving of 3 Million people is not enough to show a person's negativity towards a country cool 👊.
Other state's like punjab already have fertile land so it's particularly difficult to cause a famine their.
We're going in circles, the fact is the Bengal famine is not the fault or much more, policy of Churchill calculated to murder by starvation the poorest of Bengalis.
 

bose

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Please backread my posts. No, Churchill did not deliberately kill 3 Million Bengalis.
If Hitler would have been alive ... He would have said the same ... He did not killed Jews deliberately rather circumstances killed Jews ...

Churchill deliberately diverted ships with food grains en route to Kolkata port to Europe for world war efforts ...

Churchill's hate for Indian is very well know and he wanted to kill Indians ... he got an opportunity in Bengal he did not wanted to go by ...
 

asianobserve

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Sovereign india will never allow its people from Xyz state to die under famine. Mark my word's india even fed 10 million refugees in 1971 war.

But India only become a sovereign and unified country in 1947. Before that each kingdom or province in India were only glued together by British Imperialism. It was largely Gandhi and Indian freedom movement that united much of India.

No surprise therefore that Punjabis did not run to the help of Bengalis...
 

Assassin 2.0

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But India only become a sovereign and unified country until 1947. Before that each kingdom or peovince in Indoa were glued together by British Imperialism. It was largely Gandhi and Indian freedom movement that united much of India.
Running away from the topic now trying to do face saving by making different topics.
But in 1947 whole india British india government and they simply let Indians die.
Indian states even under different kingdoms helped each other in different time's. And today Bengal and North india are particularly not similar but if a famine happens people will help them even with their own pockets.
 

asianobserve

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This sounds like
Genocide of jews was not fault of hitler. It was fault of jews for living in Germany.
Did the British declare poor Bengalis as non-Bengalis, stripped them of their nationality, confiscated their properties, placed them in concentration camps, shot them, or gassed them? Was there an order to kill them or starve them?

Facts is your bestfriend.
 

asianobserve

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How's that relevant to the Bengal famine ?
To show you that India at that time was not 1 India but separated Indis along historical subdivisions, which contributed (explain) the lack of help to starving Bengals from other Indian provinces.
 

bose

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But India only become a sovereign and unified country in 1947. Before that each kingdom or province in India were only glued together by British Imperialism. It was largely Gandhi and Indian freedom movement that united much of India.

No surprise therefore that Punjabis did not run to the help of Bengalis...
You are trying to play the same game here in this forum the British played centuries back ?

Do not dare to try it ...
 

Assassin 2.0

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But India only become a sovereign and unified country in 1947. Before that each kingdom or province in India were only glued together by British Imperialism. It was largely Gandhi and Indian freedom movement that united much of India.

No surprise therefore that Punjabis did not run to the help of Bengalis...
Government of biggest empire on earth was so poor to not to buy food from other states and countries to feed people showed the credibility. And deliberately REJECTED THE AID.
 
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Dovah

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To show you that India at that time was not 1 India but separated Indis along historical subdivisions, which contributed (explain) the lack of help to starving Bengals from other Indian provinces.
What are you talking about?

All of India was under British dominion. The Viceroy was appointed for all of India. Furthermore, all provinces were under British control and all of them were taxed by the British rule.

Presenting administrative subdivisions as proof for absence of malicious intent in Churchill's actions is an argument in bad faith.

Are we to believe that Britishers who micro-controlled every aspect of Indian economy, from how much salt to produce to which crops to grow could not overcome this provincial impedance? The argument is hollow.
 
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