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Ok I realise another huge flaw in your theory! If harappan adopted the language, did the Europeans adopt it too??
Also, you still have not provided evidence that the languages existed only from 1500bce and not before. How did you come to the conclusion that the language which existed in India was was spoken with continuous change from their origin in 45000bce ? And similar case with European language.
Also, the nomadic theory you proposed would have shown evidence based on genetic because they would ave had to cover Europe and India and tat is not possible without any genetic material staying back.
And no inequality said any thing about language spreading from India to Europe in 1500 bce btw. That notion itself was a stupid concept introduced by Britards thinking world as only 6000yrs old. The genetic evidence is that the Indians and Europeans split into two groups heading towards India and Europe at 60000-50000 bc, most likely from te indo-Iranian plain or central Asia. So much more likely hypothesis is that both developed their own writing and culture but similar sounding engages. This is a natural conclusion from evidence without a need for a magical tribe spreading culture and language to India and Europe without leaving a trace.
Also, provide proof for your assertion from a non aryan britard source. Indo European dominating harappan my ass
Also, you still have not provided evidence that the languages existed only from 1500bce and not before. How did you come to the conclusion that the language which existed in India was was spoken with continuous change from their origin in 45000bce ? And similar case with European language.
Also, the nomadic theory you proposed would have shown evidence based on genetic because they would ave had to cover Europe and India and tat is not possible without any genetic material staying back.
And no inequality said any thing about language spreading from India to Europe in 1500 bce btw. That notion itself was a stupid concept introduced by Britards thinking world as only 6000yrs old. The genetic evidence is that the Indians and Europeans split into two groups heading towards India and Europe at 60000-50000 bc, most likely from te indo-Iranian plain or central Asia. So much more likely hypothesis is that both developed their own writing and culture but similar sounding engages. This is a natural conclusion from evidence without a need for a magical tribe spreading culture and language to India and Europe without leaving a trace.
Also, provide proof for your assertion from a non aryan britard source. Indo European dominating harappan my ass