Aryan Invasion Hypothesis

panduranghari

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Back to your post. @pmaitra

You ask

  • Was India densely populated during the later stages of IVC? Where is the proof of that? Also, no one knows what language IVC used, and whether it was different in different regions. Their pictographic scipt remains unresolved.
  • Moreover, present Indian languages are similar to, not same as fraternal descendants of the Proto-Indo-European family. This indicates a possible mixing of languages, not overwhelming as alleged by this self styled historian.

From http://defenceforumindia.com/forum/religion-culture/1403-aryan-invasion-theory-38.html#post672506

From the Greek historian Herodotus, who was describing notable events occurring
during his lifetime and the times before ~2,500 years ago, we learn that the Indians were
more numerous than any other nation that he was acquainted with and paid tribute exceeding
that of every other people, 360 talents of gold-dust, to the Persian king Darius. From his
accounts we also learn, that in his day, the tribes of Indians were numerous and did not all
speak the same language; some were nomads others not (Herodotus 1942: 259-264).
It is noteworthy how little have things changed in the last 2,500 years, since Herodotus.
Even now, the population of the Indian sub-continent, including Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh,
Sri Lanka and India proper, is the largest on the planet and totals nearly 1.5 billion humans,
representing ~23% of the world's population. This is higher than the population of China
or any other nation. Many languages are still spoken in India; Hindi speakers being the
largest population




  • There is a god called Mithra who exists in Rig Veda as well as Zoroastrian texts.
  • There are references to other gods that have disappeared in the later Vedas. Quite possibly, Rig Veda and it's contents are not exclusivy out of the Indian subcontinent, but more likely out of the Central Asian hinterland, whence the Aryans seems to have arrived.
I dare say- the absence of any memory of migration recorded orally, verbally or in writings is the best defence against AIT. Birth of Mithra was celebrated as Mithras in ancient Iran which became christmas in Europe.

Always remember the game should be played on equal footing. Especially in the West, all sort of history has been "reconstructed" based on archaeology, philology, linguistics, and a host of other analytic specialties. Some history writing has been based on a few dubious hints. So attested history is not the only type of history. "Reconstructed" history is also given the honor of being history.

From Cambridge Journals Online - Abstract

Among the documents found by Hugo Winckler there are treaties between Subbiluliuma, king of the Hittites, and Mattiuaza, king of Mitani (Northern Mesopotamia), of the time about 1400 B.C. In these treaties deities of both these nations are invoked.

Hugo Winckler found the following :—x
ilani mi-it-ra-aš-ši-il ilāni uru-w-na-aš-ši-el
.....................(variant), a-ru-na-aš-ši-il
ilu......... in-dar ilāni na-ša-a[t-ti-ia-a]n-na
(variant) in-da-ra na-Å¡[a]-at-ti-ia-an-na,

The affixes aššil and anna are not yet clear; they probably belong to the Hittite idiom. The word ilu is the Babylonian for " god ", and ilāni is the plural. Here, then, we have Mitra, Varuna, Indra, and the Nasatyas or Aś vins. The plural ilani before Mitra and Varuna indicates, according to Professor Eduard Meyer's plausible explanation, that both formed an aggregate, a pair; for in the usual dvandva - compound Mitra - Varunau both words are in the dual, which is represented by the plural ilāni, since the Babylonian language has no dual.

These five gods not only occur in the Rgveda, but they are grouped together here precisely as we find them grouped in the Veda. In my opinion this fact establishes the Vedic character and origin of these Mitani gods beyond reasonable doubt. It appears, therefore, quite clearly that in the fourteenth century B.C. and earlier the rulers of Northern Mesopotamia worshipped Vedic gods. The tribes who brought the worship of these gods, probably from Eastern Iran, must have adopted this worship in their original home about the sixteenth century. At that time, then, the Vedic civilization was already in its full perfection. This fact makes the late date of the Veda usually adopted impossible, and is distinctly in favour of my theory.

But there is one difficulty which must be discussed. There is doubt as to the nationality of the kings of Mitani who worshipped the Vedic gods. According to Winckler (p. 37) the dynasty of those kings was as follows:—
..............Sa-us-sa-tar
...............Artatama
...............Sutarna I
Tushratta.................Artatama II
Mattivaza.................Sutarna II (Suttatarra)

These names are certainly not Sanskrit, but look like Iranian names ; and similarly the names of two later kings of Kommagene, who probably descended from the same stock, Kundaspi (854 B.C.) and Kustaspi (743 B.C.).

In two articles Professor Eduard Meyer fully recognizes the Iranic character of these names, and at the same time he is of opinion that the Vedic gods were native gods of the tribe from which the rulers of Mitani descended. He supposes, therefore, that that tribe was a member of the still undivided Aryan branch of the Indo-Germanic family, and that their gods were Aryan gods. For Mitra is not only an Indian, but also an Iranian god. Indra, the Vedic god, is also mentioned in the Avesta, but only as a demon; and so is a Naonhaithya (= Nasatya). And Varuna is thought by Professor Meyer to be identical with Ahuramazda. Furthermore, the form Nasatya of the inscription, instead of the Zend form Naonhaithya, would, in his opinion, prove that the inscription belongs to a time when, in the undivided Aryan language, s had not yet been changed into h, as in the Iranian languages. According to Eduard Meyer the Aryan period, which is theoretically constructed by comparative philology, is now, for the first time, verified by documentary evidence.

With reference to the antiquity of Vedic culture, let us now consider this theory that in the fifteenth century B.C. the Aryan branch of the Indo-Germanic family was as yet undivided. It is obvious that if this theory be true the Indians cannot have been settled in the Punjab in the fifteenth century B.C. as an independent people, as Eduard Meyer contended a year before Winckler's discoveries had been made known.1 But it would be unfair to take him now at his word; however, the question which requires an answer is this : what length of time would be needed for the development implied in Meyer's hypothesis with regard to the Aryan character of the Mitani gods. This development would pass through four stages — (1) the differentiation of the undivided Aryan branch into two different peoples, Indian and Iranian, and of the one Aryan language into two distinct languages, the Sanskrit and the Iranian; (2) the conquest and settlement of at least a part of Western India by the Indians ; (3) the development of Vedic culture; and (4) the rise and perfection of Vedic poetry, of which the Rgveda would be the later and riper portion then extant. Now all these are slowly progressing racial changes and historical and social movements of great moment. And the time required for them cannot be estimated with anything like exactness even within the limits of one or two centuries. But this much may be said, that the process of development must have been a rapid one if completed within 500 years. With this in mind, if we assume that the fifteenth century B.C. be the starting-point for the differentiation of the Aryan branch into the Indians and the Iranians, we should be obliged to place the Rgveda as it now stands a considerable time after 1000 B.C. I venture to think that few scholars who, without prejudice, consider the great religious, social, and historical changes which happened between the Rgveda and the rise of Buddhism, will be prepared to accept so late a date for the Rgveda. Therefore, since Eduard Meyer's theory leads to consequences inconsistent with the facts of Indian history, must we not reject his theory of the Aryan origin of the Mitani gods ? And must we not insist that it is highly improbable that the undivided Aryans should have worshipped six1 gods just as they appear in the Rgveda, while the Iranians retained only Mithra as a god and entirely changed the character of the remaining ones ?


  • How does one explain this alleged "heartland" of Vedic texts, when, as explained earlier, Mithra existed among Zoroastrians, and as far as England? Where exactly then is this heartland? Any explanations?
Please read above.

  • Fire worshipping is not unique to India.
  • Fire altars can be found in many places, including, as far as the American continent. This proves absolutely nothing.


  • What evidence has been presented to establish the rejection of the Aryans migrating or invading into India on horses, whether at 2000 BC or 4000 BC? Nothing. The author simply makes a claim that something is "rejected."
AIT has been rejected by all but Harvards Michael Witzel. AMT is attempt to find more acceptance. However Shrikant Talageris Rigveda and the Avesta: The Final Evidence: Shrikant G. Talageri: 9788177420852: Amazon.com: Books puts a nail into the coffin of AMT too. Please read Michael Kazanas too.
 
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hello_10

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Bottom-line truths about Western 'Invasion' theories

I dont really believe in any type of invasion theories of Western nations, to fulfill their racial/religious belief this way. America was discovered in 16th century, Australia was discovered in 17th century and India was facing attacks from West and North for more than 2500 years, as it had enough wealth to attack outsiders that time, while Hinduism is more than 5000 year old culture. the only truth about these "theories" :wave:

if we find African a different race, and Chinese on a completely of other side then India in the middle of these two won't mean for any type of European invasion too :nono:. a common sense?????

India did have business with the Europe for more than 2000 years, Alexandra the great had one of the greatest historical war with India too. but rest of the Western racial/religious 'theories' are very similar to the 'fact' that Mr Jesus Christ directly came from sky, Jews had no role in it, while Western rulers always treat Jewish as their father. while even Jesus's 'invasion' theory is itself hardly 2000 year old :tsk:. few bottom-line truths about these Western 'Invasion' theories in others nations :wave:
 
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pmaitra

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if we find African a different race, and Chinese on a completely of other side then India in the middle of these two won't mean for any type of European invasion too :nono:. a common sense?????
Common sense dictates we look at the world map first. There is a big body of water between Africa and India. On the other hand, China and India are separated by the Himalayas, crossing which is relatively easier, but difficult nonetheless, and between India and Central Asia, we have the Hindu Kush, crossing which is even more easier. Moreover, even if Africans had to come over land, they'd have had to cross the Arabian Peninsula and Iran.

Furthermore, nobody is talking about an European invasion. We are talking about Aryan Invasion. They are completely different things. Have you considered reading the thread first?
 

hello_10

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Common sense dictates we look at the world map first. There is a big body of water between Africa and India. On the other hand, China and India are separated by the Himalayas, crossing which is relatively easier, but difficult nonetheless, and between India and Central Asia, we have the Hindu Kush, crossing which is even more easier. Moreover, even if Africans had to come over land, they'd have had to cross the Arabian Peninsula and Iran.

Furthermore, nobody is talking about an European invasion. We are talking about Aryan Invasion. They are completely different things. Have you considered reading the thread first?
its look more logical. hmmm Aryan were mainly from the Indus River Civilization areas????

i coudn't get time to read so big thread but i may start now :thumb:
 

hello_10

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Bottom-line truths about Western 'Invasion' theories

I dont really believe in any type of invasion theories of Western nations, to fulfill their racial/religious belief this way. America was discovered in 16th century, Australia was discovered in 17th century and India was facing attacks from West and North for more than 2500 years, as it had enough wealth to attack outsiders that time, while Hinduism is more than 5000 year old culture. the only truth about these "theories" :wave:

if we find African a different race, and Chinese on a completely of other side then India in the middle of these two won't mean for any type of European invasion too :nono:. a common sense?????

India did have business with the Europe for more than 2000 years, Alexandra the great had one of the greatest historical war with India too. but rest of the Western racial/religious 'theories' are very similar to the 'fact' that Mr Jesus Christ directly came from sky, Jews had no role in it, while Western rulers always treat Jewish as their father. while even Jesus's 'invasion' theory is itself hardly 2000 year old :tsk:. few bottom-line truths about these Western 'Invasion' theories in others nations :wave:
I just noticed my typing mistake in this post. I meant to say attract here :thumb:
 

Raj30

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SujnanNayak Sujnan Nayak 5 hrs
@anilkohli54
Lies taught to children's. Std IX Hist pg 10 Mumbai. Aryans have origin in Turkey (Asia Minor)
 
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panduranghari

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SujnanNayak Sujnan Nayak 5 hrs
@anilkohli54
Lies taught to children's. Std IX Hist pg 10 Mumbai. Aryans have origin in Turkey (Asia Minor)
Hey Ram.

Recently the Karnatka minister faced a lot of flak for suggesting Puru defeated Alexander and we should teach it as such.

I think the school texts can take time to change. We can do it in our own homes and teach kids to question every assertion made.

Unless children question things, they wont learn. Besides there is a mass movement in India to westernise. Why cant we be traditional Indians with modern outlook. Western =/= modern.


Sent from my iPhone 5 using Tapatalk
 
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PredictablyMalicious

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I don't need a 40 page thread to tell me what I already know. There was some kind of aryan migration/invasion. It is not by coincidence that when my family goes outside of Jammu, we are thought to be middle easterners/non indian even by delhiites and other north indians.
I think the important thing is that north and south indians should mix more, have more marriages etc.. These mixtures would produce beautiful people!
 

Virendra

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Your reference to Rig Veda, while valid, is in a different context. The Ashwamedha yagya, i.e. horse sacrifice, is described not in the Rig Veda, but Yajur Veda, books 22–25.
I hope the Vedas do not contradict themselves :-

Aghnyaa yajamaanasya pashoonpahi
(O human! animals are Aghnya – not to be killed. Protect the animals)
Yajurveda 1.1

Pashunstraayethaam
(Protect the animals)
Yajurveda 6.11

Dwipaadava Chatushpaatpaahi
(Protect the bipeds and quadrupeds)
Yajurveda 14.8

Breehimattam yavamattamatho maashamatho tilam
Esha vaam bhaago nihito ratnadheyaaya dantau maa hinsishtam pitaram maataram cha
(O teeth! You eat rice, you eat barley, you gram and you eat sesame. These cereals are specifically meant for you. Do not kill those who are capable of being fathers and mothers.)
Atharvaveda 6.140.2

Ya aamam maansamadanti paurusheyam cha ye kravih
Garbhaan khaadanti keshavaastaanito naashayaamasi
(We ought to destroy the people who eat cooked as well as uncooked meat, meat involving destruction of males and females, foetus and eggs)
Atharvaveda 8.6.23

Anago hatya vai bheema kritye
Maa no gaamashvam purusham vadheeh
(It is definitely a great sin to kill innocents. Do not kill our cows, horses and people)
Atharvaveda 10.1.29

Lets see those verses of books 22-25 and try to find out the accurate meaning.

Regards,
Virendra
 

Virendra

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I don't need a 40 page thread to tell me what I already know. There was some kind of aryan migration/invasion. It is not by coincidence that when my family goes outside of Jammu, we are thought to be middle easterners/non indian even by delhiites and other north indians.
As Invasion is already ruled out in Indian context I would stick to only migration.
There has been human migration in and out of various places all over the world ever since the modern human left Africe due to geological events.
Reasons vary - for some it was weather change, others due to population boom and resource crunch etc etc.
When these migrations tooks place? We can't pinpoint the years.
But there's nothing to prove them to have happened between 1900 B.C. and 1200 B.C. as AIT/AMt guesstimate.
Yes affinity is there, specially in linguistics. So what was the direction of the migration if there was one? It is not yet conclusively proven for either way (in or out of India).

Don't let the stereotypes and stigmas of people on physical appearence define you.
Besides, phenotypes and genotypes are different things as well. Meaning, we can't talk about races in a definitive way if only appearences are observed.

Now that we're on races and genes, here are excerpts from a genetic research paper published in Jan this year.
For full text with citations visit the paper itself at - http://www.investigativegenetics.com/content/pdf/2041-2223-3-20.pdf

Recently, archaeological evidence supporting the early peopling of India was discovered in the Kurnool district of Andhra Pradesh, one of the southern Indian states.
This study shows that the country was inhabited by modern humans before and after the Toba eruption around 74,000 YBP.
The evidence is in the form of stone tools. The stone tools of this study most likely resemble contemporaneous Homo sapiens technologies in Africa.
Further, a partial cranium recovered from Narmada Basin was dated back to around 300,000 to 250,000 YBP.
....
....
It is well established that the modern human originated in Africa about 200,000 years before present (YBP) [5,6].
They started migrating out-of-Africa between 55,000 and 85,000 YBP.
....
....
there was a mega drought in East Africa between 135,000 and 75,000 YBP, when the water volume of Lake Malawi was reduced by at least 95%. The timing of this mega drought corresponds with the timing of the exodus of anatomically modern humans out-of-Africa along the southern coastal route.
The firm establishment of the southern coastal route of modern human migration reveals India as a major corridor for early
human migration. The anthropological, historical, linguistic and genetic evidence for early peopling of India is found imprinted all over the country.
....
....
Even though there is a continued debate on the Aryan migration into India, detectable gene flow from west Eurasia has been shown by many studies [13,16,23,24,30-32,44,51,53].
Interestingly, we have detected gene flow from the west prior to the Aryan invasion [30,32].
There is now universal agreement that various Indian populations share a common late Pleistocene maternal and paternal ancestry, along with detectable east and west Eurasian ancestries [31,54].
Using hundreds of thousands of autosomal markers, we illustrated that the Indian populations have two major distinct ancestry components;
one restricted to southern India, the second one restricted to the northern region of India [30,32].
It is noteworthy that both of the ancestry components show higher haplotypic diversity than those predominant in west Eurasia [32].
This rejects the idea of an Aryan invasion/migration and suggests an ancient demographic history and/or higher long-term larger effective population size in India than in west Eurasia.
....
I think the important thing is that north and south indians should mix more, have more marriages etc.. These mixtures would produce beautiful people!
(from the same paper)
....the extant Indian populations are admixtures of both ANI and ASI. Interestingly, indigenous Andaman Islanders are the only ASI-related groups without ANI ancestry.

Regards,
Virendra
 

civfanatic

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I don't need a 40 page thread to tell me what I already know. There was some kind of aryan migration/invasion. It is not by coincidence that when my family goes outside of Jammu, we are thought to be middle easterners/non indian even by delhiites and other north indians.
I think the important thing is that north and south indians should mix more, have more marriages etc.. These mixtures would produce beautiful people!
1. Kashmir in particular saw heavy invasion/settlement by Turks and Central Asians in the past 1000 years. It was one of the few sultanates in the subcontinent with a large Muslim population (as a percentage of the whole).

2. West Asians, especially Bedouins (Arabians), are not really fair-skinned. Iranians are not that fair-skinned either; actually, from my experience Iranians are extremely diverse in their skin tones. Only Turks/Central Asians can be unambiguously called "fair-skinned".

3. Most so-called "Indo-Aryans" in India are hardly fair-skinned. A person from Punjab, on average, have about the same skin tone as someone from Karnataka. I have yet to see anyone who can differentiate between Punjabis, Biharis, Kannadigas, Telugus, etc. based on skin color or physical appearance alone. It's simply not possible.

4. Overall, it seems the Indians with the darkest skin tones are actually not South Indians but the tribal peoples in Central India. Though even there, I have seen some fairly light-skinned tribals. These populations are very ancient, quite possibly the descendants of the very first humans to arrive in India, and they have not really mixed with other populations but preferred to live in isolation.
 

pmaitra

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I hope the Vedas do not contradict themselves :-
I do not find one hymn from one Veda contradicting another hymn from the same or another Veda as unreasonable. The Vedas are large, multiple, diverse, and of asynchronous origin. They are very unlikely to have been authored by the same person, persons of the same age, or persons of the same school of thought.

As Invasion is already ruled out in Indian context I would stick to only migration.
Lack of evidence of invasion does not rule out invasion.

1. Kashmir in particular saw heavy invasion/settlement by Turks and Central Asians in the past 1000 years. It was one of the few sultanates in the subcontinent with a large Muslim population (as a percentage of the whole).
This is quite obvious from surnames such as Geelani, Khorasani, Bukhari, Baghdadi, etc..
 

Virendra

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I do not find one hymn from one Veda contradicting another hymn from the same or another Veda as unreasonable. The Vedas are large, multiple, diverse, and of asynchronous origin. They are very unlikely to have been authored by the same person, persons of the same age, or persons of the same school of thought.
I do not know of any such examples (of contradiction).

Lack of evidence of invasion does not rule out invasion.
It was always a mere speculation/assertion and is so even today.
 

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pmaitra

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577 and 587 are both posts of @panduranghari where in the first one he debunks the misinterpretation of the verses in the Vedas and in the second post he's quoting some text book paragraph talking about Aryan migration into India .. no verses there.
Sorry, that was a typo. I meant 577 and 578. I have corrected my original post.
 
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PredictablyMalicious

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1. Kashmir in particular saw heavy invasion/settlement by Turks and Central Asians in the past 1000 years. It was one of the few sultanates in the subcontinent with a large Muslim population (as a percentage of the whole).

2. West Asians, especially Bedouins (Arabians), are not really fair-skinned. Iranians are not that fair-skinned either; actually, from my experience Iranians are extremely diverse in their skin tones. Only Turks/Central Asians can be unambiguously called "fair-skinned".

3. Most so-called "Indo-Aryans" in India are hardly fair-skinned. A person from Punjab, on average, have about the same skin tone as someone from Karnataka. I have yet to see anyone who can differentiate between Punjabis, Biharis, Kannadigas, Telugus, etc. based on skin color or physical appearance alone. It's simply not possible.

4. Overall, it seems the Indians with the darkest skin tones are actually not South Indians but the tribal peoples in Central India. Though even there, I have seen some fairly light-skinned tribals. These populations are very ancient, quite possibly the descendants of the very first humans to arrive in India, and they have not really mixed with other populations but preferred to live in isolation.
Well I'm not kashmiri. I am Dogra and we are more similar to punjabi but a lot of us have kashmiri pandit mixture. ANd I think kashmiris are actually fairer than iranians. I think North Indians do look different from south indians. It's not about skin colour. Most indians are brown but north indians just have different features which are easily distinguishable from the australoid influence found in central/southern india.
 

Virendra

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Sorry, that was a typo. I meant 577 and 578. I have corrected my original post.
I was going through the books 22-25 of Yajurveda Vajasaneyi Madhyandina. Couldn't find a verse that says horse sacrifice.
 

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