I don't know why the grammar of North and south Indian languages are same but the European language share absolutely zero similarities in grammar structure with Indian languages even with Sanskrit.
I am not saying they are the same. I am saying they are similar. Of course I can't ask this in TN without provoking angry responses from the retards here and so I am asking it here.
Dravidian peoples - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Some linguists hypothesized that Dravidian-speaking people were spread throughout the Indian subcontinent before a series of Indo-Aryan migrations. In this view, the early Indus Valley civilisation (Harappa and Mohenjo Daro) is often identified as having been Dravidian.[6] Cultural and linguistic similarities have been cited by researchers such as Finnish Indologist Asko Parpola as being strong evidence for a proto-Dravidian origin of the ancient Indus Valley civilisation.
Some scholars like J. Bloch and M. Witzel believe that the Indo-Aryan moved into an already Dravidian speaking area after the oldest parts of the Rig Veda were already composed.[7] The Brahui population of Balochistan has been taken by some as the linguistic equivalent of a relict population, perhaps indicating that Dravidian languages were formerly much more widespread and were supplanted by the incoming Indo-Aryan languages.[8]
Thomason and Kaufman state that there is strong evidence that Dravidian influenced Indo-Aryan through "shift", that is, native Dravidian speakers learning and adopting Indo-Aryan languages.[9] Erdosy states that the most plausible explanation for the presence of Dravidian structural features in Old Indo-Aryan is that the majority of early Old Indo-Aryan speakers had a Dravidian mother tongue which they gradually abandoned.[10] Even though the innovative traits in Indo-Aryan languages could be explained by multiple internal explanations, early Dravidian influence is the only explanation that can account for all of the innovations at once – it becomes a question of explanatory parsimony; moreover, early Dravidian influence accounts for several of the innovative traits in Indo-Aryan languages better than any internal explanation that has been proposed.[11] Zvelebil remarks that "Several scholars have demonstrated that pre-Indo-Aryan and pre-Dravidian bilingualism in India provided conditions for the far-reaching influence of Dravidian on the Indo-Aryan tongues in the spheres of phonology, syntax and vocabulary".[12]
All of this have been debunked by genetic studies.
Guys don't waste your time, dude hates everyone that is not him.
Seriously dude , go through the AIT thread!
Please don't quote Witzel's theory to me. Now to the point, only proof that Indus Valley(3300-1900BC) is Dravidian because there were no Aryans until 1500BC, if you have another proof show me. Now, the Ghaggar-Hakra river matches the description of Saraswati mentioned in Rigveda that dried in an earthquake in 1900BC and later Hindu scriptures too describes the drying of Saraswati. It only points that Sanskrit speaking people were here before 1900BC, the Sapta Sindhu the earliest Vedic homeland exactly matches the description of Indus Valley civilization.
Some linguists hypothesized that Dravidian-speaking people were spread throughout the Indian subcontinent before a series of Indo-Aryan migrations. In this view, the early Indus Valley civilisation (Harappa and Mohenjo Daro) is often identified as having been Dravidian.[6] Cultural and linguistic similarities have been cited by researchers such as Finnish Indologist Asko Parpola as being strong evidence for a proto-Dravidian origin of the ancient Indus Valley civilisation.
Some scholars like J. Bloch and M. Witzel believe that the Indo-Aryan moved into an already Dravidian speaking area after the oldest parts of the Rig Veda were already composed.[7] The Brahui population of Balochistan has been taken by some as the linguistic equivalent of a relict population, perhaps indicating that Dravidian languages were formerly much more widespread and were supplanted by the incoming Indo-Aryan languages.[8]
Thomason and Kaufman state that there is strong evidence that Dravidian influenced Indo-Aryan through "shift", that is, native Dravidian speakers learning and adopting Indo-Aryan languages.[9] Erdosy states that the most plausible explanation for the presence of Dravidian structural features in Old Indo-Aryan is that the majority of early Old Indo-Aryan speakers had a Dravidian mother tongue which they gradually abandoned.[10] Even though the innovative traits in Indo-Aryan languages could be explained by multiple internal explanations, early Dravidian influence is the only explanation that can account for all of the innovations at once – it becomes a question of explanatory parsimony; moreover, early Dravidian influence accounts for several of the innovative traits in Indo-Aryan languages better than any internal explanation that has been proposed.[11] Zvelebil remarks that "Several scholars have demonstrated that pre-Indo-Aryan and pre-Dravidian bilingualism in India provided conditions for the far-reaching influence of Dravidian on the Indo-Aryan tongues in the spheres of phonology, syntax and vocabulary".[12]
Yes, when I was learning Telugu, all I needed to make word by word translation from Hindi to Telugu without bothering about the grammar because all was same. You can't do this thing from Sanskrit/Hindi/Bengali to say English, German, Latin/Italian etc. Moreover, all North Indian languages came from a common Middle Indo-Aryan languages called Prakrit that's why everyone of them share great amount of similarities. I believe we need to wait to know the real reason for such grammatical similarities.
Yes, I also know about Mahadevan. Again asking you how you know Indus people were Dravidians apart from Aryan invasion/migration theory in 1500BC given by our very own maxy Mueller.
Iravatham Mahadevan, a well-known expert in Indian epigraphy, especially the Indus and Tamil Brahmi scripts, on Friday unveiled what he termed as his long years of studies on the Indus Valley script, demonstrably showing that the language of that once great civilisation "was an early form of the Dravidian."
he explained with the help of 'ideograms- a picture or a symbol that represents an idea or a concept-,' that the "Indus language has been correctly identified" as an early form of the Dravidian script.
'Indus script early form of Dravidian' - The Hindu
And Telugu has to same structure as Tamil!
Recorded Tamil history starts with the mythology Hindu Rishi Agasthiyar and Lord Murugan teaching him Tamil language and also read about some Hindu mythology about the origin of Cauvery river. So, we can assume it was Hindu since the known recorded history. Actually, everywhere in India, the non-Sanskrit languages were introduced later on for worshiping purpose and they became a dominant language by the time of Bhakti movement. But I will still refrain from calling Tamil and Sanskrit belonging to same language family until I get a strong proof for this and there is lots of difference in vocabulary. But anyway, I strong believe Indo-European classification is a farce if two languages don't share a same grammar it means they belong to two language families and one language too loanwords from others instead of having a common origin
This guy looks strange to me.Of all the things I am accused of, I have never been called a Brahminist
You are amusing dude!
R u kidding me.. This Idiot gave one example of Iron pillar @Delhi,Slokha has perfect Pi number ..... but don't know who did it or it's combination of iron ores.Not written in any where in ur so called Vedas/Puranas,he can't gave any number
Any way ,Some one built-ed Pillar in olden days but that doesn't prove it is from ur Vedas
*************
Word vimana in ur vedas,so they developed vimana in olden days ......... how old r u.Pushpak vimana is famous in ramayana it is just a mythology
Indian languages(including Sanskrit) shows no grammatical resemblances with European languages even with Latin, Indo-European language family was coined solely on the basis of some common vocabulary.
Actually a language can be related in many ways .. grammer , phonetic makeup, sementics.. and all this put together have a say on common orgin since language is as good as only if it means and is used in interations .
I have learned German, its grammar is same like English and bear no resemblance either with Sanskrit or Hindi grammatical structure.
Can You please list the Number system of German? say count 1-10.
Yes, I mentioned about the vocabulary, I was referring to grammar.
Language is a combination of phonetics, grammer , vocabulary.. the simmilaritis are striking and they have Evolved over the centuries based on usage and local influences .. thats the reason y i believe its related.. the similarities .. It definely needs more research to prove anything though
