I was on the bent of agreeing with you last time I left this discussion. I thought over it, and now I see that what you said makes no sense to me, but then, that's me, a non-expert.
You said that 4% growth is required for increased productivity that is unaccounted for. Anything that is unaccounted for, cannot be enumerated. Anything that can be enumerated, must be accounted for. So, either that 4% value is a completely fudged up number, or the justification for it is spurious. In other words, your argument collapses on its own weight.
So far, so good. Now let us take a step away from this and look at it this way.
[HR][/HR]
In a span of 12 months, say April 2011 (k) and April 2012 (k+1) [hypothetically]
There is increased productivity across the board, between point k and k+1. What has happened then? Some examples:
- More iron ore has been mined: this is due to use of better excavators that are more energy efficient.
- More grains and vegetables have been produced: this is due to use of better fertilizers, more efficient irrigating water pumps, more efficient tractors that till land burning less fuel, etc.
- More passengers have been carried in public transport systems: this is due to use of modern technology that has increased the frequency and speed of trains.
- More students have graduated: this is due to use of more effective methods of education and opening of more schools or colleges.
Now, consider three scenarios:
Scenario 1: No extra currency notes have been introduced in the system. This means, there is a greater supply of iron ore, greater supply of grains and vegetables, better supply of train tickets, better supply of skilled workers, but same supply of currency notes between k and k+1. This results in what? An automatic increase in the demand for the currency notes, thus reducing prices of iron ore, food and vegetables, train fares and reduced wages for skilled workers.
Scenario 2: Commensurate extra currency notes are printed and pumped into the economy. The result is there is no change in the prices of iron ore, food and vegetables, train fares, and unchanged wages for skilled workers between k and k+1. This is, if the increased productivity was correctly accounted for leading to zero inflation (even by Gold Standard, assuming there has been a commensurate increase in Gold Reserves, but this is not an essential point).
Scenario 3: There is some increase in productivity and some extra currency notes printed. Eventually, there is price rise all across the board, from k to k+1.
[HR][/HR]
Now, what is happening in real life? Neither scenario 1, nor scenario 2. All we are seeing is scenario 3. Obviously, that 4% number is way off mark.
So, now, could you please explain how these so called experts arrived at this magic number of 4%? Did they wave a magic wand? Did they see it in their dreams, like the Benzene ring? Or was it a revelation delivered from the divine?
What makes it all the more preposterous is to claim that it is scientific, when it is not. It starts with a claim or a justification, and falls flat on its face.
I would like you to convince me otherwise, because, right now i am more inclined to believe that inflation happens at the behest of the banking cartels, who benefit by inflating the currency so that they can lend out more money than they actually have, i.e. sell debt and make profits out of the buy-back of the debts. I wonder what would happen if there was a profitable prospect in case, instead of selling debt, they were selling credit?