See I understand the logic of applying 1% loss of growth to a base GDP figure. I don't intend to question that.
What I am trying to figure out is if the base on which that 1% is applied is the right one.
For example I could trace that Rs. 153 lakh crore figure that you adduced, to this write up in The Hindu which in turn refers to a report by The Forbes and tries to clear up the issue in a logical manner basis the advise of a professional economist.
But while this fails to cite if this is Real GDP or Nominal GDP (a minor technical point) given the time frames in focus in the problem you are focusing on, it does goes on to say something more important and pertinent that you surprisingly have missed, either mistakenly or deliberately.
You see The Hindu report was in the context of direct comparison of Nominal GDP of UK against Nominal GDP of India. Needless to say Nominal is only made up, unreal or fake. Here is how the Thesaurus describes the word Nominal (and the context is not missed out upon economists either):
http://www.thesaurus.com/browse/nominal
Synonyms for nominal
adj supposed, theoretical
If this is what Nominal means and if the economist (Mr. Srivastava) quoted by the The Hindu also note the following, then how come you missed the real import of the observation:
Now the question arises if you deliberately
missed out the real implications of the figures or was it an innocent mistake or if you never chanced upon observation by D.K. Srivastava, chief policy advisor, EY India?