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Lmao. So you're hairy, light brown, and unibrowed? :rofl: :rofl:

On another note, I think I may have figured out why @atheisthindu thinks India is backwards and primitive. He probably thinks the whole of India is like Jammu and Kashmir. :rofl:

Wow, I can't believe I missed this post. Idiocy like this, especially after hypocritically calling another country "backward", needs to be addressed. Peripheral Indian state? Lmao, this is the 21st century. The Government of India conducts a comprehensive census every 10 years, including in...

I might, once he answers mine.

Actually, no, people still haven't provided an answer to my very simple question, which I posted two times earlier in this thread.

Hey, was it you who wrote this? :rofl:

Well, I am not a "commie" and "sickular" so why would I? On the other hand, I have already shown why I use the term "Hindutva mujtahid" and have even provided sources to support my usage of the term.

I have logically responded to every argument thrown at me by the Hindutva mujtahids. They have not reciprocated the favour. And yes, I will continue to use the term "Hindutva mujtahid" because it is an apt description and a constant reminder of the hilarious confusion and hypocrisy found in...

All the Hindutva mujtahids are getting their panties in a twist because they can't respond to any of my arguments logically. All they can do is resort to personal attacks and potshots. This is the level of civilization and sophistication of our Hindutva mujtahids.

Lol, it is always hilarious to see racists to blame 'others' for their problems. White Americans blamed blacks, the Nazis blamed the Jews, and apparently we have superior people of Jammu blaming Kashmiris. :rofl: Show me some statistics to back up your claim. Show me how much better Jammu is...

Persians and Tajikistanis are both backward and excessively religious? How many Persians and Tajikistanis do you know to make that statement? The ONLY countries in the world worth emulating at present are the European countries, and the Scandinavian ones in particular. That doesn't mean that...

1. The incoming 'Aryans' did not bring Sanskrit to India. They brought some IE language with them, possibly the language of the Vedas, which later evolved into Sanskrit in NW India. 2. The Aryans did not spread Sanskrit anywhere to the north or west of India. Sanskrit did not exist anywhere...

There is even less evidence for an Out-of-India migration than there is for a mass Into-India migration. How do ANI-ASI research results lead to that conclusion?

Below is a map of the satrapies/provinces of the Achaemenid Persian empire. I have outlined in purple the region known as 'Haraiva' to the Persians and as 'Aria' to the Greeks and Romans. This region was probably the ancestral homeland of the Persians, who had migrated from this region southwest...

No, the correct name was "Aryanshahr" (Parthian), which later became "Eranshahr" (Middle Persian). This is the basis of the modern name "Iran" (Eran). The word "Aryan" is first attested in the titles of Ardashir I, the founder of the Sassanian dynasty, who was called Shahanshah Aryan, "King of...

There is no big deal about "Aryans". We are just discussing history here. And what exactly is "backward" about Persians or Tajiks? "Aryan" was also an Iranian word since ancient times. The Parthian and Sassanian rulers called their realm "Aryanshahr", i.e. the Land of the Aryans. But you...

Time and chronology. It obviously takes time for new peoples and their culture, including language, to become dominant in a certain area and then spread further beyond. The introduction of IE language into NW India probably occurred not much sooner than c.2000 B.C.E. By c.500 B.C.E., the Aryans...

After three pages, my question still has not been answered. How exactly could the Vedic Aryans expand over 6000 km into the west, but not even a few hundred kilometers south to Telangana?

This exact same passage is also invoked as evidence of inwards migration, because the language is so vague and imprecise. Which is why I don't care too much for such literary "evidence". If this is all you have, then your "theory" doesn't hold much water. In other words, you have no argument...

The passage says nothing about Central Asia or Iran or any region beyond the known boundaries of Aryavarta at the time. Except, they were. There was no urban civilization in South India at the time of IVC. The Sangam period is dated as between roughly 300 B.C.E. and 300 C.E., and moreover...