DFI Member research into the Origins of Indian ancient history

Bhumihar

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Is this the reason why Slavic people and Indians share R1a haplogroup but ancestry test charts them as completely European and Indians as completely Central South Asians.
R1a seems to have originated in India or North India at the very least.

 

Indo-Aryan

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R1a seems to have originated in India or North India at the very least.

Yes. I too believe that. But we need a solid evidence for it. If Harappan males carry it then that will be the eventual death to the colonial lies of outside Aryans and their mythic migration.

Mittani paradox and archaeological evidences have already killed the Invasion theories. Migration theories will too die with that solid male harappan ancestry.

Iranians have lesser concentration of R1a which is quite surprising. Croations trace their history to the Iranian nomads that entered Europe around 1000bce. Seems like Croats have higher concentration of it than modern Iranians.
 

Vamsi

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Genetics doesn't tell which language we spoke , the culture or tradition, they only tell the movement of people, in order to prove that so called Aryan Migration happened then genetics must coincidence with Archeology and other branches of study

In linguistics there is an interesting argument. In Greece or German or anyother Indo-European language ,there is a word for Elephant. But Elephants are found only in India , South East Asia and Africa and certainly NOT in steppe, greece or Germany, then how did these languages have a word for elephant. The only possible explanation is India as the homeland for PIE and out of India migration.
 

Indo-Aryan

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Genetics doesn't tell which language we spoke , the culture or tradition, they only tell the movement of people, in order to prove that so called Aryan Migration happened then genetics must coincidence with Archeology and other branches of study

In linguistics there is an interesting argument. In Greece or German or anyother Indo-European language ,there is a word for Elephant. But Elephants are found only in India , South East Asia and Africa and certainly NOT in steppe, greece or Germany, then how did these languages have a word for elephant. The only possible explanation is India as the homeland for PIE and out of India migration.
In all Probability and possibility Vedic is the PIE.

PIE was spoken somewhere between 4500bce-2500bce. What did people before that spoke? Proto-PIE....before that Proto Proto-PIE 😂

These colonial linguists are crazy.
There was no tower of Babel where one language was spoken after whose fall languages diversified.

Before Yamnaya invaded Europe what languages did the Europeans spoke who had an ancestry of Anatolian Farmers and European hunter gatherers?
 

Bhumihar

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Genetics doesn't tell which language we spoke , the culture or tradition, they only tell the movement of people, in order to prove that so called Aryan Migration happened then genetics must coincidence with Archeology and other branches of study

In linguistics there is an interesting argument. In Greece or German or anyother Indo-European language ,there is a word for Elephant. But Elephants are found only in India , South East Asia and Africa and certainly NOT in steppe, greece or Germany, then how did these languages have a word for elephant. The only possible explanation is India as the homeland for PIE and out of India migration.
Correlates well with the R1a map.



The link Between India and Europe that is Central steppe has lesser concentration because they got overwritten my Mongol and Various tribe influx in the regions.




Prior to Mongol Invasion the Central Asian people probably looked like north Indians and moving up looked more and more like eastern Zooropeans.

 

Indo-Aryan

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If Aryans were Europeans and brought horses into India then why does the name of horse among Indo Iranians is so distinct from Europeans.

Scholars have reconstructed the original Proto-Indo-European word for horse as ékwos. This word slowly evolved into the Greek hippos and the Latin equus and many other words in various ancient languages. These classical roots are preserved in modern English words like “hippodrome” and “equestrian." However, the Romans used a second slang word (in Vulgar Latin or common spoken Latin) for horse caballus, which at the time had the connotation of being a nag. This word, and not the more formal Latin equus, became the word for horse in Romance languages that evolved from Latin. For example, we have caballo in Spanish and cheval in French.

The German word for horse is Pferd, which sounds nothing like the words for horse in the Romance languages. However, this word originated from another Latin word paraveredus. This word originally had a very specific meaning of a spare post horse in a way station. No doubt the Germans who first had contact with the Roman Empire were aware of the Roman courier system, but just why they would borrow this specific word, generalize it to the class of all horses,and gave up their older word for horse is uncertain. No doubt the Roman stations where missing all of their fine paraveredi after the German tribes passed through. Paraveredus became palefridus and in time was shortened to Pfred. The word palefridus is the also the origin of the English word “palfrey.” The English word "horse" does not sound anything like the words of the other languages and in fact may be closer than Pferd to the original old German word. Its origin was a prehistoric Germanic word reconstructed as khorsaz. This word also evolved into the Icelandic word for horse hestur.


Word for Horse among Vedic is asva/Ashva in Iranian I think it's Aspa and among Mittani its asva/Ashva.
 

Indo-Aryan

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If Aryans were Europeans and brought horses into India then why does the name of horse among Indo Iranians is so distinct from Europeans.

Scholars have reconstructed the original Proto-Indo-European word for horse as ékwos. This word slowly evolved into the Greek hippos and the Latin equus and many other words in various ancient languages. These classical roots are preserved in modern English words like “hippodrome” and “equestrian." However, the Romans used a second slang word (in Vulgar Latin or common spoken Latin) for horse caballus, which at the time had the connotation of being a nag. This word, and not the more formal Latin equus, became the word for horse in Romance languages that evolved from Latin. For example, we have caballo in Spanish and cheval in French.

The German word for horse is Pferd, which sounds nothing like the words for horse in the Romance languages. However, this word originated from another Latin word paraveredus. This word originally had a very specific meaning of a spare post horse in a way station. No doubt the Germans who first had contact with the Roman Empire were aware of the Roman courier system, but just why they would borrow this specific word, generalize it to the class of all horses,and gave up their older word for horse is uncertain. No doubt the Roman stations where missing all of their fine paraveredi after the German tribes passed through. Paraveredus became palefridus and in time was shortened to Pfred. The word palefridus is the also the origin of the English word “palfrey.” The English word "horse" does not sound anything like the words of the other languages and in fact may be closer than Pferd to the original old German word. Its origin was a prehistoric Germanic word reconstructed as khorsaz. This word also evolved into the Icelandic word for horse hestur.


Word for Horse among Vedic is asva/Ashva in Iranian I think it's Aspa and among Mittani its asva/Ashva.
aš-šu-wa to be precise.
 

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Is there any possibility of people from diverse ethnic backgrounds learning in Takshila and since learning was in Sanskrit it's vocabulary was transmitted to other parts when people returned to their homelands?
 

Indo-Aryan

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If I am not wrong most of the slavic languages are pretty young compared to Sanskrit.

Oldest literary Slavic was standardized in 9th century common era and based on this language they reconstructed proto-slavic which was spoken between 2000bce-600ce

😂
 

Indo-Aryan

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Linguistic evidence suggests that the Croats originate from northwestern Iran and spoke a language related to Iranian. By the time the Croats appear in historical documents, they are a Slavic nation.


East Slavic
West Slavic
Bulgarian9 millionBulgaria
Serbian11.1 millionSerbia and Montenegro
Croatian6.2 millionCroatia
Bosnian4 millionBosnia and Herzegovina
Slovenian2 millionSlovenia
Macedonian1.5 millionMacedonia
Czech11.5 millionCzech Republic
Slovak5 millionSlovakia
Polish42.7 millionPoland
Lower Sorbian14,000Germany
Upper Sorbian15,000Germany
Kashubian3,000Poland
Belarusian9 millionBelarus
Russian145 millionRussia
Ukrainian39.5 millionUkraine
 

Indo-Aryan

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Lithuanian is the closest modern language to Sanskrit although the oldest attested dates are 1500s common era.

Lithuanian; Scholars believe is the closest to PIE but they also believe Vedic Sanskrit which is closest and older than Lithuanian can't be PIE.

Colonial scholars at their best 😂
 

Vamsi

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In all Probability and possibility Vedic is the PIE.

PIE was spoken somewhere between 4500bce-2500bce. What did people before that spoke? Proto-PIE....before that Proto Proto-PIE 😂

These colonial linguists are crazy.
There was no tower of Babel where one language was spoken after whose fall languages diversified.

Before Yamnaya invaded Europe what languages did the Europeans spoke who had an ancestry of Anatolian Farmers and European hunter gatherers?
PIE is just a hypothetical language. There is no direct evidence for that language. There are no clay tablets, no pottery shreds or nothing. Even if we assume that this PIE is true, there is absolutely zero evidence that it existed in Steppe. The famous argument about the horse being bought into Bharat by so called Aryans is also BS. Horse mentioned in Rigveda has 17 pairs of ribs which matches with native Shivalik horse, while the Central Asian steppe horse has 18 pairs of ribs.
 

asaffronladoftherisingsun

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If Aryans were Europeans and brought horses into India then why does the name of horse among Indo Iranians is so distinct from Europeans.

Scholars have reconstructed the original Proto-Indo-European word for horse as ékwos. This word slowly evolved into the Greek hippos and the Latin equus and many other words in various ancient languages. These classical roots are preserved in modern English words like “hippodrome” and “equestrian." However, the Romans used a second slang word (in Vulgar Latin or common spoken Latin) for horse caballus, which at the time had the connotation of being a nag. This word, and not the more formal Latin equus, became the word for horse in Romance languages that evolved from Latin. For example, we have caballo in Spanish and cheval in French.

The German word for horse is Pferd, which sounds nothing like the words for horse in the Romance languages. However, this word originated from another Latin word paraveredus. This word originally had a very specific meaning of a spare post horse in a way station. No doubt the Germans who first had contact with the Roman Empire were aware of the Roman courier system, but just why they would borrow this specific word, generalize it to the class of all horses,and gave up their older word for horse is uncertain. No doubt the Roman stations where missing all of their fine paraveredi after the German tribes passed through. Paraveredus became palefridus and in time was shortened to Pfred. The word palefridus is the also the origin of the English word “palfrey.” The English word "horse" does not sound anything like the words of the other languages and in fact may be closer than Pferd to the original old German word. Its origin was a prehistoric Germanic word reconstructed as khorsaz. This word also evolved into the Icelandic word for horse hestur.


Word for Horse among Vedic is asva/Ashva in Iranian I think it's Aspa and among Mittani its asva/Ashva.
Most of the eurfags branches are poor in cognate words of ekwa. This destroys their claims for being the first domesticator of horse. Those languages show loss of the word or the meaning or both.At most those have retained only a very remote semantic connection with horse. Thus in gayermanic branch apart from the old english eoh "horse" the gothic "ahiwa" occurs only as the compound word "aihwatundi" which means the herb bramble, prickly bush and the old saxon "ehu-" is found only as a compound word in ehu-scalc which means "stable keeper." In that steppy there is no cognate word for ekwa that is horse.The cognate word for fraud pie *ek(w)a for "horse" is not found in any of the languages of anatolia either.

Admittedly there is no hard evidence for this fraud language no texts, no fragments anywhere. But the astonishing similarities that unmistakably exist between SANSKRIT, Old Greek, Latin and other languages cannot be dismissed as chance events or borrowing or wave-influences. The languages involved starting in the East and moving westward are chiefly these: SANSKRIT or VEDIC or (Old Indic), avestan (or iranian in Ancient persia), tocharian (in Central Asia), armenian, hittite (luvian, palaic and few others in what is today turkroaches), Slavic (branches in Russia, Bulgaria, Serbia, Czechoslovakia, Poland and few other areas), albanian, Greek, Latin (and few other dialects in today’s shitly, spain, france and Rumania), celtic (Old irishwelsh), gayermaniac(the largest family with gothic, old high german, Old icelandic etc) and baltic (latvian, lithuanian and old prussian).

So you see the salad is made of various fruits Do note 70% of fruits in this salad is BHARTIYA. From the fruits you get salad you make salad. But what coomers have done they claim the salad is source of fruits not the Fruits being source of salad kya bakchodi hai bc.
 
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