Aryan Invasion Hypothesis

asaffronladoftherisingsun

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R1a1 in India cuts across language, caste, tribe, and religion :hmm::india2::clap2:

Pic related are some Dravidian speaking tribal groups with high R1a frequency.




While several IE speakers have lower or similar R1a frequency such as

Kashmiri Pandits (19.61%)
Punjabi Brahmins (35%)
Gujarati Brahmins (32%)
Gujarati Patels (22%)
(Sahoo et al)

https://www.theapricity.com/forum/s...aste-tribe-and-religion&p=7353448#post7353448
As I say its all about samples. We need more and more samples. I remember Banjara Lambadi tribal community Rajasthan has 37 to 50%? r1b as well. Clearly BHARAT is most genetically diverse only next to Africa.
DHARMAAloneTriumphs5.jpg
 

Indo-Aryan

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Davidiski himself:


The consensus is that an Iranian-related and possibly even Iranian population moved up into the steppe and gave rise to Yamnaya.

There are plenty of recent papers and books backing this scenario, so there's no need to link them here.

Also, some academics believe that because of this the PIE homeland may have been in Iran, but these generally aren't linguists.

Indeed, the consensus among linguists is still that the PIE homeland was on the steppe, never mind the wacky theories about Yamnaya's Iranian origins.


😂😂😂
 

asaffronladoftherisingsun

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View attachment 121459


Go through comment section.
That coomer davidcuck never stops whining.

All credits to our boi VASISTHA and that Abdullahalamreki for putting this.

So without getting ahead of myself , I will only address this claim made in the paper1 (bolded emphasis is mine). I will deal with the rest of the head scratches later in some other posts.


Groups that traditionally view themselves as being of priestly status in this and the preceding panel are shown in red (“Brahmin,” “Pandit,” and “Bhumihar” but excluding “Catholic Brahmins”), and tend to have a significantly higher ratio of Central_Steppe_MLBA to Indus_Periphery_Cline ancestry than other groups.
More generally, there is a notable enrichment in groups that consider themselves to be of traditionally priestly status: 5 of the 6 groups with Z less than −4.5 were Brahmins or Bhumihars even though they comprise only 7–11% of the 140 groups analyzed (p less than 10−12 by a χ2 test assuming all the groups evolved independently).
Nevertheless, the fact that traditional custodians of liturgy in Sanskrit (Brahmins) tend to have more Steppe ancestry than is predicted by a simple ASI-ANI mixture model provides an independent line of evidence, beyond the distinctive ancestry profile shared between South Asia and Bronze Eastern Europe mirroring the shared features of Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranian languages (59), for a Steppe origin for South Asia’s Indo-European languages prior to ~2000 BCE.
The claim is quite simple and appealing - Steppe ancestry has a special relation to brahmin groups, but not other groups and therefore another line of evidence that steppe ancestry IS CAUSAL TO THE ETHNOGENESIS OF BRAHMIN CASTE AND THEREFORE VAIDIK RELIGION.


One has to look deep at the supplementary information in the paper to find out flaws in this data. I'll call them 'NOT SO MAJOR FLAWS' and will discuss them a bit later. But before that I want to point out a basic problem with this whole approach. Which is

CORRELATION DOES NOT IMPLY CAUSATION, AND RESEARCHER'S CONFIRMATION BIAS NEEDS TO BE CHECKED


This is one of the MAJOR FLAWS of the authors' claim I am discussing. The steppe ancestry of modern Brahmins cannot tell us that the ancient steppe ancestors (males as claimed in the paper) married the ancestors of these soon to be Brahmins and Bhumihars of UP, Bihar and Nepal, and because of this admixture the Brahmin caste was born. These steppe males also brought the proto sanskrit language apparently. That is just a conjecture at this point.

I'll posit another scenario as to why this Steppe/IndusPeriphery ratio is high in these UP Bihar area modern brahmins. It is this

The high social status of Brahmins over the centuries allowed them plenty of choice in marriage, and they were able to marry women with higher west eurasian and steppe ancestry.
My reasoning is backed up by this 2016 paper2 about Uttarakhand castes.


When comparing with the previous analyses, our data showed significant (unpaired t-test P<0.0001) higher proportion of West Eurasian-specific lineages among traditionally higher caste (Brahmin and Kshatriya) populations for maternal lineages, although it was non-significant for the paternal ancestry (unpaired t-test P=0.5468).
The paper is basically saying that west eurasian (iranian, SC asian and steppe) ancestry in modern uttarakhand brahmins and kshatriyas is mediated through women. This is exactly the conclusion made by Narasimhan from the study the Swat valley data as well.

THE NOT SO MAJOR FLAWS

The authors completely fail to mention the Brahmin groups which do not have an extreme z score for the Steppe/Indus Periphery Ratio. Looking into the supplementary file of the paper which has Tables 1-5 in excel format, there are several brahmin groups with non significant z scores. What about them?

Filtered brahmin data list from table S5 from supplement. AHG = Onge andamanese

As you can see, none of the steppe/indusperiphery of the Brahmin shaded populations is significant (<-3). Why is this fact not mentioned? the data is taken straight from the supplement, none of the analysis in the above table is my own. I have only filtered the list and shaded the populations.

THE BIGGEST FLAW

What does Steppe/IndusPeriphery ratio even mean?? It would have meant something important if the model for modern Brahmins was just Steppe + Indus Periphery. But as you can see from above table, its Onge + Steppe + Indus Periphery. And there is no pure Onge like population to be found in India around 2nd mill bce. So this 3 way model is not a proximal model. Why assume that locals in punjab and locals in Bihar would have the same amount of Onge component as each other before steppe ancestry came in? Surely there was more Onge component in the east.. Then why is it considered separately? Just to get a good steppe/indus periphery ratio for Brahmins?


Let me try to explain with example.


Suppose a Khatri man lived in Punjab, and a Brahmin man lived in Bihar around 1500bce.

The ancestry of Khatri man is 100% Indus Periphery and 0% Onge related.

The Bihari Brahmin being eastern has more Onge - So 75% Indus periphery and 25% Onge related.


Now suppose that 2 steppe women migrate and each marry one of the 2 respectively. The couples have 1 child each. What will be the % of the 3 components in both children? The table below shows the ancestries of the children.


See how we can create a high Steppe/IndusPeriphery ratio in eastern indian Brahmins.
Voila!! We created a high steppe/indusperiphery ratio in one of the two even though they had same external steppe input. Hence proved, this Steppe/IndusPeriphery ratio means nothing for a 3 source model. The paper has many such head scratchers, I shall continue at another time.


1 Narasimhan VM, Patterson N, Moorjani P, et al. The formation of human populations in South and Central Asia. Science. 2019;365(6457):eaat7487. doi:10.1126/science.aat7487

2 Negi, N., Tamang, R., Pande, V. et al. The paternal ancestry of Uttarakhand does not imitate the classical caste system of India. J Hum Genet 61, 167–172 (2016). https://doi.org/10.1038/jhg.2015.121
 
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asaffronladoftherisingsun

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Davidiski himself:


The consensus is that an Iranian-related and possibly even Iranian population moved up into the steppe and gave rise to Yamnaya.

There are plenty of recent papers and books backing this scenario, so there's no need to link them here.

Also, some academics believe that because of this the PIE homeland may have been in Iran, but these generally aren't linguists.

Indeed, the consensus among linguists is still that the PIE homeland was on the steppe, never mind the wacky theories about Yamnaya's Iranian origins.


😂😂😂
Chutiya halfassed linguistic consensus.

RIGVEDA mein "GHEE" hai steppy mein ghanta kuch nahi hai.
 
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Indo-Aryan

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Chutiya halfassed linguistic consensus.

RIGVEDA mein "GHEE" hai steppy mein lauda bhi nahi hai.
From : Vasistha

著者(英) Yasuko Suzuki, Sanskrit RUKI Revisited

"
However, there are enough differences
among the four branches that require further developments beyond this peculiar context.
First, Indo-Aryan is the only branch among the four that has developed a full series of retroflex
consonants.
"
"There are some further differences, which suggest that sibilant retroflexion has developed
during a certain span of time and has multiple origins. "


Initial *x- in Slavic revisited
Jan Bičovský

"
There have also been attempts to explain initial x- in Slavic as a result of
an Iranian adstratum and borrowing. Attempts have been made to explain
even the very phonetic process of the ruki-rule as being of Iranian origin (Sussex 2006: 24 among others). Since it is universal in Indo-Iranian,
the ruki rule must have been at least of Proto-Indo-Iranian antiquity (the
unity of these dialects is variously dated between 2000 and 2500 BCE),
and failed to apply at some stage to the newly developed Iranian *s < *,
in the same manner as it did not apply to PSL *s < PIE *. At such a deep
time level, rule borrowing among closely related languages is possible,
but so is an independent (and similar) development of a common heritage. "

There are also constraints on Indo Iranian timing of split.
The sankritic proper nouns in Mitanni and amarna letters are squarely found in the late vedic texts and mahabharata. This is easy to test, make a list of all the Indo aryan words in Mitanni and find where they occur in ancient indian texts. This is probably a millenium after the oldest RV Riks.

Therefore I say that 1500bce steppe is completely irrelevant to the question of Indo aryan in India. The R1a L657, which is the most common clade in South asia, which most likely was born inside south asia itself to a single man and spread from this single man.

Old research told us that a large number of Z93 men stormed India and introduced language, that was when they could not dig into the child subclades. This research is old and is not true anymore. One z93 man produced a child who had Y3, then L657, within south asia. and it then spread.

The level of disdain / brain fart that these scholars show when writing about indo iranian astounds me. just 2 weeks back the horse paper authors said horses came along with indo iranian from steppe without studying a single horse aDna from south or central asia. This is the propaganda level we are at.
 

asaffronladoftherisingsun

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From : Vasistha

著者(英) Yasuko Suzuki, Sanskrit RUKI Revisited

"
However, there are enough differences
among the four branches that require further developments beyond this peculiar context.
First, Indo-Aryan is the only branch among the four that has developed a full series of retroflex
consonants.
"
"There are some further differences, which suggest that sibilant retroflexion has developed
during a certain span of time and has multiple origins. "


Initial *x- in Slavic revisited
Jan Bičovský

"
There have also been attempts to explain initial x- in Slavic as a result of
an Iranian adstratum and borrowing. Attempts have been made to explain
even the very phonetic process of the ruki-rule as being of Iranian origin (Sussex 2006: 24 among others). Since it is universal in Indo-Iranian,
the ruki rule must have been at least of Proto-Indo-Iranian antiquity (the
unity of these dialects is variously dated between 2000 and 2500 BCE),
and failed to apply at some stage to the newly developed Iranian *s < *,
in the same manner as it did not apply to PSL *s < PIE *. At such a deep
time level, rule borrowing among closely related languages is possible,
but so is an independent (and similar) development of a common heritage. "

There are also constraints on Indo Iranian timing of split.
The sankritic proper nouns in Mitanni and amarna letters are squarely found in the late vedic texts and mahabharata. This is easy to test, make a list of all the Indo aryan words in Mitanni and find where they occur in ancient indian texts. This is probably a millenium after the oldest RV Riks.

Therefore I say that 1500bce steppe is completely irrelevant to the question of Indo aryan in India. The R1a L657, which is the most common clade in South asia, which most likely was born inside south asia itself to a single man and spread from this single man.

Old research told us that a large number of Z93 men stormed India and introduced language, that was when they could not dig into the child subclades. This research is old and is not true anymore. One z93 man produced a child who had Y3, then L657, within south asia. and it then spread.

The level of disdain / brain fart that these scholars show when writing about indo iranian astounds me. just 2 weeks back the horse paper authors said horses came along with indo iranian from steppe without studying a single horse aDna from south or central asia. This is the propaganda level we are at.
Most GUJRATI eat THEPLA ask AMIT SHAH . But if you see a Thepla in a grave next to a skeleton it does not prove that the deceased person is a Gujarati.

GujratiThepla.png


It is well known that communities of speakers of a common language, say Gujarati, will share some similar genes because of blood relationships. However, if you find similar genes in an ancient skeleton, it is not proof that the dead person used to speak Gujarati 3000 years ago.

From that skeleton, you can never conclude that people came to Gujarat 3000 years ago and made everyone speak Gujarati after that and that they were probably speaking Telugu earlier.

Such retarded fantasy flinging is routinely practiced in methlabs of davidcuck.
 
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Indo-Aryan

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Darra-e-kur was R1b with 89% IranN + 11% ANE ancestry (2800bce). R1b has been found among the people with zero steppe ancestry.

Frankly speaking Eurogene commenters are equally dumb when it comes to India.

(not to mention Brahmin India) had more or less Indo-European culture and lifestyle 1,000BC-1000AD.

😂😂😂
 

Indo-Aryan

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The Kassite conquerors of Mesopotamia (c. 1677-1152 BCE) have a sun-god Šuriiaš, perhaps also the Maruts (attested as Maruttaš), and maybe even the Indo-Iranian god Bhaga (attested as Bugaš?), as well as the personal name Abirat(t)aš (= Indo-Aryan Abhiratha); but otherwise, the vocabulary of their largely unknown language hardly shows any Indo-Iranian or Indo-Aryan influence, not even in their many designations for the horse and horse names (perhaps barring timiraš = Old Indo-Aryan timira- ‘dark’).

😲😲😲
 

viklewapatel

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Their worldviews could not be more dissimilar

East is East, and West is West...


India Leaves Tribes Alone; the West on the other hand...

#india #australia #uk #england #genocide #empire #indopacific #indogerman #humanity #humanrights #racerelations #genocide #racism #racismisreal
 

Indo-Aryan

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Several Kassite leaders and deities bore Indo-European names, and it is possible that they were dominated by an Indo-European elite similar to the Mitanni, who ruled over the Hurro-Urartian-speaking Hurrians of Asia Minor.
 

Indo-Aryan

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I find it absolutely hilarious 😂😂😂

Manusimriti
Book 01

92.
Man is stated to be purer above the navel (than below); hence the Self-existent (Svayambhu) has declared the purest (part) of him (to be) his mouth.


Racial origins of Varna/Jati system lol
This appears to be a childish reasoning.
 
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Indo-Aryan

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I find manusimriti to be bogus.

I don't remember any Hindu king governing its subjects based on manusimriti. British were probably the first to use this text to govern Hindus.

I could be wrong but this needs some research.
 

tommy

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I find manusimriti to be bogus.

I don't remember any Hindu king governing its subjects based on manusimriti. British were probably the first to use this text to govern Hindus.

I could be wrong but this needs some research.
There exists no single manusmriti. There are multiple manuscripts and each differing widely from other. It also has been shown that manusmriti was never in use in south, Yajnavalkya smriti on the other hand might have been from archeological evidences.
 

Indo-Aryan

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There exists no single manusmriti. There are multiple manuscripts and each differing widely from other. It also has been shown that manusmriti was never in use in south, Yajnavalkya smriti on the other hand might have been from archeological evidences.
Manusimiriti as we know now most likely is of East Indic origin and many scholars as you have pointed out, too raise ? Over it's authenticity.
 

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