May be it is mine, but it is correct. You can also read Richard Eaton's Rise of Islam : Bengal Frontier Book. It is from where I am drawing the conclusions. If you take caste system this way A poor caste Hindu converts to Islam, now his own caste abandons him and so does other castes. This is exactly what happened when Hindu entrenched areas saw conversion. But in more egalitarian areas where caste system was less entrenched there abandoning one because he left religion and caste was not so rigidly performed.
Ok, good to see another perspective.
Sufi mOvement to a great extent has been exaggerated. Many of the Sufis themselves were warriors.
http://indiafacts.org/sinister-side-sufism/
For a start.
Saw the link. Sure, many Sufis were warriors, but not all. The spread of Sufism was predominantly via evangelism.
Completely wrong chronologically. Pala Empire did not face Muslims. Pala Empire was strong under Dharmopala and Devapala. After it because of lack of strong rulers it deteriorated. Central Asia was also Buddhist egalitarian see what happened there. Defeat in battlefield and Islamaization are different. Indian rulers were defeated because Indian state were decentralized, war technology not up to date and lack of religious zeal.
Not wrong at all and I never claimed Palas faced Muslims, but they faced the same adversaries as did the Senas. How come Buddist Palas were more successful than Hindu Senas?
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Obviously, you did not read my previous comments. How come the Afghans did not resist the advancing Arabs but resisted the Soviets and later the Americans with vigour?
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Indo-Greeks and Muslims are totally different. I dont even know from where to start. Pusyamitra Shunga also defeated Indo-Greeks and he was a Brahmin.
My point is to counter any potential assumption that being Buddhist makes one weak. Nothing could be further from the truth. How come the Turko-Mongols invaded all the way into India and Persia but never made much headway into Tibet?
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UP had seen lots of foreign Muslims settled. Overall conversion did not take place much. NWFP is different. There Indo-Aryan speaking Dardic people were original inhabitants and being Hindu they resisted Islamaization much more. But their neighbour Indo-Iranians being more egalitarian accepted Islam. I am talking about Pushtuns here.
Denial of voluntary conversion leads us to only one conclusion then, that the people were simply defeated and subjugated and forcefully converted. I don't think that is exclusively true.
I do not deny forceful conversion, but I certainly believe a lot of the conversion was voluntary.
Pushtuns then forced Indo-Aryan speakers to leave NWFP. Still it shows caste less Pashtun people converted more early than us.
Pashtuns are themselves Indo-Iranian.
That is what I am saying. When Marathas overran a Muslim area they did not forcefully convert people, leaving the population to help Muslim army and fight for another day. Spanish and Portuguese did not. Hindus neither had religious unity nor any consciousness. Among Indian warriors only Sikhs forcefully converted.
From what I have read, the Sikhs gave some of the toughest challenges to the Mughals, yet, these very Sikhs left Hinduism and became disciples of Guru Nanak, not by force, but by their own volition. How come?
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I am not supporting caste system, caste system did actually protect Hinduism. History should based on truth. You are echoing what many Marxist historians say. Sindh was a Buddhist dominated state in 712 when Arabs invaded, in 1947 Hindus still were 30% and Buddhists were non-existent. China's Sinkiang was Buddhist, see now it is Muslim.
Caste system did not protect Hinduism. Caste system is one of the few glaring examples of the corruption that destroyed our Vedic religion. To defend Caste system as something that protected Hinduism is naïve.
What is a Marxist Historian and what has my comment got to do with it? Karl Marx has nothing to do with religious conversion. Most of these events happened long before Karl Marx was born.
What I say is what I find logical. I do sense an attempt to re-manufacture Indian history to suit a particular narrative, when evidence indicates otherwise. Many historians choose to take an objective view of events. Calling them "Marxist" is merely a strawman argument and a
non-sequitur.
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Ok, so let us agree to disagree on the several points where we do disagree.
Let me say, just for the sake of argument, that Caste System protected Hinduism - as you claim. So, that means we do not need to rectify anything related to Casteism, as it is a "good" thing. Is that the conclusion we need to draw?
P.S.: Counter questions highlighted with
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