Ok, let me present it to you in a simplified way.
When the bank gave loan to Greece, the bank created money. In other words, Greece got money, without actually producing any tangible wealth. However, before Greece got the money, the bank itself had to create that money. Did the bank add anything to its reserves to back the extra money up? The answer is NO, because, it is a loan. So what happened here? The backing of the currency (Euro) was fractured, in other words, only a fraction of the currency is now backed by the reserves. Is this making sense to you?
Dude, again you are talking about the Fisca policy and not on fiat currency. Fiat currency is just a tool how it is wielded does not make it bad or right.
For ex., if Instead of using on useless welfare garbage like Greece did, if the Greek govt had spent it on infrastructure and other such expenses so that the economy grows increasing revenue generation in such a way that it pays off the debt, what is the problem with such a borrowing? So what happened in Greece was due to Bad fiscal policy and not Fiat currency
Another example, I take am earning 10000Rs. pa and can only spend 10000 pa. Consider two scenerios involving the same irresponsible creditors, who give out credit at the same interest rate without any security deposit(or minimal security deposit)
1. Now I borrow money Rs. 10000 from a creditor at some interest rate of 10% pa for engaging in drinking and wasting away. So when the Creditor comes knocking my door after 1 year, I have no money and so to pay it, I borrow more(Rs. 20000 at a interest of 10% pa) from the Creditor and use it to clear my initial debt to the creditor, promising to be responisble- which will be now 11000 rupees. Now, I owe 22000Rs. to the creditor in the second year BUT, I waste in again on drinks and others for another year . Note that I have a steady income of 10000Rs.(GDP) as assumed and so my debt to my Income ratio(Debt as a % of GDP) is 220% at the end of 2 years., ie I owe 2.2 times the income of a single year to the creditor
2. I borrow rupees 10000 from a creditor at the same interest rate of 10% p.a and use it to start a business with a growth rate of 100%. SO that when the creditor comes after 1 year for his money, I will owe him rupees 11000 . But My company would be worth Rs. 20000. So , I borrow from the same creditor a sum of Rs. 20000 at the same rate and pay off the initial debt showing him my success. So , now, I have a debt of 20000Rs. to the creditor in the second year and Rupees 9000 in my hands and 20000 rupees worth company at my hand. I invest in the company again and it again has a 100% growth rate. So at the end of the 2nd year, I will have 29000*2=58000 rupee company in my hand. So when the creditor comes looking for his money back, I would have a 58000rupees company and 10000rupees standard income, and so my total worth in that year would be 68000rupees. Now, the debt 22000 is only 32% of my total wealth(.ie my total debt is only 32% of the GDP) at the end of 2nd year
Here, the "me" is the nation with the fiscal policy and creditor is the "fiat currency" . in the 1st example , Me(the nation state) being irresponsible about my spending(Irresponsible fiscal policy of the nation state) caused me the debt crisis with the same Creditor(Fiat currency). In the 2nd example, me(nation state) being responsible about my spending(responsible fiscal policy by the nation state) has caused me to be more prosperous using the same creditor(fiat currency)
So Conclusion is , Fiat currency is just a tool. It cant be held responsible for the stupid welfare policies of the stupid socialist governments- just like how Knives cant be blamed for murders caused by psychopaths, when the same knives can be used for surgeries saving people by the surgeons. That is wrong
@Sakal Gharelu Ustad I am correct in my interpretation and example ?