Agustya
Regular Member
- Joined
- Mar 13, 2014
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How would India go about ***PRE-EMPTING*** a first strike from the western neighbor with conventional force? I understand that there would have to be surgical strikes, mainly on the nuclear delivery facilities - but how? The U.S used the Tomahawk in case of Iraq. India has its share of cruise missiles ( faster and more precise too).
My imagination : Most of the warheads (up to 70%) can, and have been located ( joint effort by R&AW, Mossad,CIA). So perhaps the Navy would repeat for the most part, Operation Trident. Indian Navy destroyers would hug the coast of Gujarat and "creep up" north and eventually break west for the open sea. However once they are in striking range , the Navy along with the Army would unleash 100's of BrahMos cruise missiles on the locations of the warheads, delivery systems (assuming position is known ) and the nuclear facilities. So they would be getting hit with cruise missiles from their East and South . Within minutes IAF would have to occupy their airspace.
I know this doesn't mean India is safe from other 30 % of warheads, but still no doubt would be in a much better position.
What's your take?
My imagination : Most of the warheads (up to 70%) can, and have been located ( joint effort by R&AW, Mossad,CIA). So perhaps the Navy would repeat for the most part, Operation Trident. Indian Navy destroyers would hug the coast of Gujarat and "creep up" north and eventually break west for the open sea. However once they are in striking range , the Navy along with the Army would unleash 100's of BrahMos cruise missiles on the locations of the warheads, delivery systems (assuming position is known ) and the nuclear facilities. So they would be getting hit with cruise missiles from their East and South . Within minutes IAF would have to occupy their airspace.
I know this doesn't mean India is safe from other 30 % of warheads, but still no doubt would be in a much better position.
What's your take?
