Ancestry Of Jats

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@madinndian

I see something interesting in Indians that live outside of india especially second and third generation Indians. Indians outside india call themselves Indians but
Indians from india say they are North Indian or South Indian . Punjabi , gujurati or Tamil etc.... It is Indians from india who create more divisions among themselves than outsiders.
 

Mad Indian

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@madinndian

I see something interesting in Indians that live outside of india especially second and third generation Indians. Indians outside india call themselves Indians but
Indians from india say they are North Indian or South Indian . Punjabi , gujurati or Tamil etc.... It is Indians from india who create more divisions among themselves than outsiders.
Yes. That's sadly true. We should work towards a pan national identity and theories like AIT are the biggest hurdles for that. That's why we should take this issue very seriously.
 

Razor

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Yes, but that would imply invasion and conquest, which genetics has ruled it out wrt AIT/AMT. And you said you dont think there was invasion and that only cultural migration, which now you want to change to invasion? Thats why I said its impossible. Seriously dude, instead of these back and forth logical somersaults, stick to occams razor - IVC was Indian-pure and simple as all the evidence points to the same.
Not necessarily. Did Buddhism spread through invasion? Did xtianity spread through invasion in early days.
And where did I ever claim IVC was foreign? Maybe you should try reading the posts before assuming things.

What a ridiculous question. When we talk about migrations, we talk about it in the scale wrt to the theory we are discussing. By the same logic, Indians have migrated to US in large amount. So with the few genetics markers for Indians there, we can concluded that Indians were the forefathers of USA? Seriously dude, stop clutching at straws
"we can concluded that Indians were the forefathers of USA":
Now seriously that's ridiculous. When did I ever say Aryans or whatever were the forefathers of Indians/North Indians. Obviously indians (N,E,W,S and even NE) are mixed to varying degrees, as is evident when you look at indians from various regions. Again you should read posts before assuming things.
But you will note that the Indians who are a tiny fraction of the pop of the US have already made a strong impact on the US.
Similarly groups that have entered "India" through the millennia have had major impact on "India" over the centuries. One of these groups maybe be aryans, their impact being in religion and language.


Actually, thats the problem.Vedas are not hard science. It can be interpreted in many ways depending ont he person interpreting it. @LurkerBaba even said that Rig veda cant be intrepreted as it is only a hymn. So subjective interpretation of vedas <<<<<< Objective data researched on genetics.
Well, you asked if any of our sanskrit or tamil texts have references, that's why i wrote that.

Dude, since when did SEA start speaking Arabic ? Seriously, make up your mind, which part of culture got migrated? Language , religion , both? So you are going to claim with a straight face that the largest country of the world at the time - India actually got its language(Sanskrit) and customs(Hinduism) from the central asian nomads who had just then settled there?
Hmm.
Make up my mind???
One can not make up one's mind because there are no hard and fast rules here.
It's surprising you think otherwise.
When Buddhism went to China, it took cultural components with it, but not language.
When xtianity came to kerala it took some customs, and some language. But when same xtianity went to rome, it adopted local language and customs.
When islam went to malay customs, but not languae. When islam went to egypt, language and customs. etc.
And what do you mean India was "the largest country of the world at the time"???


Again, Xtianity had political patronage and of course, the Xtianity is indeed a superior culture to the Roman pagans. And Xtianity originiated in a well settled culture and not a bucnh of nomads. And even xtianity spread did not spread the language.
Seems you don't know about early church. It was just a bunch of adamant people running around trying to spread a faith which was not even accepted in it's own homeland (israel.)
No culture behind it (so no question of being "superior" to roman pagan culture), no political patronage either. It was only after constantine that xtianity actually became kind of a force (and also corrupt). Till then xtians were mostly persecuted.

@TejasMK3 : I'll have to read through the material you have posted. Thanks I ll get back to you later.
 
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Mad Indian

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Not necessarily. Did Buddhism spread through invasion? Did xtianity spread through invasion in early days.
And where did I ever claim IVC was foreign? Maybe you should try reading the posts before assuming things.

Again- Buddhism spread from an advanced civilisation/culture to less advanced cultures of the time - Tibet , SEA and and so on. Xtianity is a mix of those both , both by conquest and culture. Roman empire's culture was a decaying mess at the time.

That is not the same as a civilisation as advanced as IVC getting its language and culture from a bunch of nomads called Aryans as you claimed..

"we can concluded that Indians were the forefathers of USA":
Now seriously that's ridiculous. When did I ever say Aryans or whatever were the forefathers of Indians/North Indians. Obviously indians (N,E,W,S and even NE) are mixed to varying degrees, as is evident when you look at indians from various regions. Again you should read posts before assuming things.
You said whether I mean to say there was no migration into India. Thats why I clarified what I meant. And @TejasMK3 has already given a more important correction/addition to my post - the time of migrations into India is contradictory to AIT/AMT. Thats why AMT is shit

But you will note that the Indians who are a tiny fraction of the pop of the US have already made a strong impact on the US.
Similarly groups that have entered "India" through the millennia have had major impact on "India" over the centuries. One of these groups maybe be aryans, their impact being in religion and language.
Again you are back to square one, now claiming that there was actual migration of Aryans into India , which has been debunked by peer reviewed genetic research. Seriously, if you can just get over your preconceptions and take a step back, you will notice AIT/AMT is a fucked up theory. You dont have to do these somersaults between migrations and cultural migrations just to suit your theory as and when needed.


Well, you asked if any of our sanskrit or tamil texts have references, that's why i wrote that.
What you gave are not valid references. @bennedose already explained why Rig Veda is not a valid evidence since it is only a hymn and can be interpreted in any way to suit any narrative. I will again say this - genetics trump subjective interpretations of Vedas anyday

Hmm.
Make up my mind???
One can not make up one's mind because there are no hard and fast rules here.
It's surprising you think otherwise.
Again, in this own thread, you have not made up your mind on whether the culture was the one which has migrated into India(Sanskrit and Hinduism) or Aryans themselves migrated with their culture and language and taught it to stupid natives.

You are not making your mind as it is convinient to shift goal posts from cultural migrations to actual migrations as and when needed

When Buddhism went to China, it took cultural components with it, but not language.
When xtianity came to kerala it took some customs, and some language. But when same xtianity went to rome, it adopted local language and customs.
When islam went to malay customs, but not languae. When islam went to egypt, language and customs. etc.
And what do you mean India was "the largest country of the world at the time"???
India had the largest population in the world at the time, even higher than all of Europe put together at the time(and arguably the largest population from dawn of civilisation till date.) . That is why India would not have adopted a foreign language , and that too from nomads without any conquest

Egypt had Islam spread to it through conquest and hence with it part of the language, and Kerala still does not speak Arabic.

Exactly - Cultural migration would not bring with it the language . There is no place where it was so. Thats why Aryan migration being only a cultural migration is BS as it would imply Sanskrit being indeigenous while Aryans brought in Hinduism. And of course in all cases, the migration was from a high culture to a low culture civilisation..


Seems you don't know about early church. It was just a bunch of adamant people running around trying to spread a faith which was not even accepted in it's own homeland (israel.)
No culture behind it (so no question of being "superior" to roman pagan culture), no political patronage either. It was only after constantine that xtianity actually became kind of a force (and also corrupt). Till then xtians were mostly persecuted.
Err no. Actually When Constantine was making Xtianity the official religion, Xtianity was already on the rise and his kingdom was already splintered by the religious divide. Constantine simply backed the winning horse. And Xtianity , no matter how barbaric is arguably much more culturally superior to Roman pagans and of course having the roman emperor back you is something that is not small


And Finally, I dont understand why you do all these mental somersaults with Migration, Invasions, Cultural Migration and what not when there is not a single evidence to show that any of them are true and when there is mountain of evidence to show that AMT/AIT is crap.

This is what I meant by people with serious identity issues. Indians have become so much slaves to the British propaganda and have constructed their very identity around it that now they refuse to learn the truth right in front of them
 

pmaitra

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Again you are back to square one, now claiming that there was actual migration of Aryans into India , which has been debunked by peer reviewed genetic research.
What peer reviewed genetic research are you talking about?

Show me what research has actually "debunked" (as you so confidently claim) the already observed distributions of Y-haplogroup and U-haplogroup posted earlier in this thread?

Research has shown that most people who cite research have no clue what research they are talking about.
 
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Mad Indian

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What peer reviewed genetic research are you talking about?

Show me what research has actually "debunked" (as you so confidently claim) the already observed distributions of Y-haplogroup and U-haplogroup posted earlier in this thread?

Research has shown that most people who cite research have no clue what research they are talking about.

Its you who has no idea what you are talking about - genetics has ruled out migrations into India during the time period of 2500- 1500 BCE flatly, The links provided by @TejasMK3 has enough on that. And Genetics also has ruled out any significant genetic flow into India for past 10000years(aka end of Ice age). Just because you dont understand genetics does not make the evidence fault. The Y-haplogroup and U-haplogroup studies show that there is genetic link between India and Europe - and with the distributive pattern of variations showing that the migrations was most likely from India to Europe. And it is the only pattern of Migrations even possible logically, as Europe was under iceage 10000years ago, making it highly unlikely that Aryans with Sanskrit and Vedas were living there. Its stupid to think that Humans lived in ICE age Europe and only to migrate into India just as ICE age was ending. Its even more retarded to think that origin of Sanskrit and Vedas was from a bunch of nomads and not from a well settled Civilisation like IVC. And no, dont make mental gymnastics now claiming that IVC was Aryan - it was not as per AIT

As I said, you guys sound like creationists who dispute evolution because they cant understand the evidence given to them
 
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pmaitra

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Its you who has no idea what you are talking about - genetics has ruled out migrations into India during the time period of 2500- 1500 BCE flatly, The links provided by @TejasMK3 has enough on that. And Genetics also has ruled out any significant genetic flow into India for past 10000years(aka end of Ice age). Just because you dont understand genetics does not make the evidence fault. The Y-haplogroup and U-haplogroup studies show that there is genetic link between India and Europe - and with the distributive pattern of variations showing that the migrations was most likely from India to Europe. And it is the only pattern of Migrations even possible logically, as Europe was under iceage 10000years ago, making it highly unlikely that Aryans with Sanskrit and Vedas were living there. Its stupid to think that Humans lived in ICE age Europe and only to migrate into India just as ICE age was ending. Its even more retarded to think that origin of Sanskrit and Vedas was from a bunch of nomads and not from a well settled Civilisation like IVC. And no, dont make mental gymnastics now claiming that IVC was Aryan - it was not as per AIT

As I said, you guys sound like creationists who dispute evolution because they cant understand the evidence given to them
What genetics have ruled out migration between 2500-1500 flatly? Really? They flatly ruled it out? Spinning your own stories now, I see? Or else, post the PDF of that research paper.

Y-haplogroup and U-haplogroup exists in India, Europe, and also the regions in between. Have you been paying attention to what contrarian posts have been saying, or are you just blurting out your same old hackneyed content?

Europe? Again taking the luxury of assuming things that have not been claimed by me? I clearly stated that I was talking about Aryan Migration/Invasion Theory, not Gaelic Migration/Invasion Theory. Keep your strawman with yourself.
 

Mad Indian

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Europe? Again taking the luxury of assuming things that have not been claimed by me? I clearly stated that I was talking about Aryan Migration/Invasion Theory, not Gaelic Migration/Invasion Theory. Keep your strawman with yourself.
This is the reason I consider it a waste of time to involve in a actual debate with you - you rarely have the ability to understand the consequences of the nonsense you talk about. AIT is about Aryans - who were Europeans and Central asians invading/Migrating into India around 1500BC. That would mean that Aryans/Europeans who were living in the ICE age in the ice covered parts of the world during the ICE age decided to migrate into India during a time, when ice age would have ended in Europe. Thats as retarded as it can get logically speaking


Y-haplogroup and U-haplogroup exists in India, Europe, and also the regions in between. Have you been paying attention to what contrarian posts have been saying, or are you just blurting out your same old hackneyed content?.
All the contrarian crap are from a earlier research papers which have not stood the test of time or peer review. So you have no evidence to actually support the crap you are touting as true

What genetics have ruled out migration between 2500-1500 flatly? Really? They flatly ruled it out? Spinning your own stories now, I see? Or else, post the PDF of that research paper..
The genetics which I am sure you dont have the capability to understand. As I said, @TejasMK3 has already posted the links. Its not my problem that your ability to understand genetics is limited. I wont waste my time with people like you any more than I waste it with creationists.
 

TejasMK3

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Thank you for a post with a lot of sincere effort and references.

Two things to point out:

This is an expected observation which only provides genetic evidence of Aryan Migration or Aryan Invasion or a combination of both. This is not the only evidence. There is linguistic evidence, and there is evidence from Vedic texts.

Indeed. Migrations did occur. U haplogroup frequency does indicate so. The migration was not from western Europe, but certainly from Iran. That is why it is called Aryan Invasion/Migration Theory, not Gaelic Invasion/Migration Theory.
Show me what research has actually "debunked" (as you so confidently claim) the already observed distributions of Y-haplogroup and U-haplogroup posted earlier in this thread?

Research has shown that most people who cite research have no clue what research they are talking about.
:facepalm:

Basically you quoted two studies and added "Yes yes AITAMT proven", without reading things mentioned there.

Presence of U Haplogroup shows Aryan invasion...errr what? Yeah if you mean Aryan invasion happened 30k years ago (atleast).

Completely forgetting time frames posted, and assuming the U Haplogroup to be one monolithic block, despite it being a very region specific subgroup whose mutations date back atleast 30-50k years, but was brought in 3500 years ago....hmmm.

The genetic mtdna material available in India is a result of movements that occurred atleast 20-30k years ago, or even older.

The Place of the Indian mtDNA Variants in the Global Network of Maternal Lineages and the Peopling of the Old World

Both western and eastern Eurasian-specific mtDNA haplogroups can be found in India together with strictly Indian-specific ones. However, in India the structure of the haplogroups shared either with western or eastern Eurasian populations is profoundly different. This indicates a local independent development over a very long time period. Minor overlaps with lineages described in other Eurasian populations clearly demonstrate that recent immigrations have had very little impact on the innate structure of the maternal gene pool of Indians. Despite the variations found within India, these populations stem from a limited number of founder lineages. These lineages were most likely introduced to the Indian subcontinent during the Middle Palaeolithic, before the peopling of Europe and perhaps the Old World in general. Our demographic analysis reveals at least two major expansion phases that have influenced the wide assortment of the Indian mtDNA lineages. The more recent phase, which according to our estimation started around 20,000-30,000 years ago, seems to correspond to the transition from the Middle to the Upper Palaeolithic.
http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0960982200800573
Thus, we have shown that the overwhelming majority of the so-called western-Eurasian-specific mtDNA lineages in Indian populations, estimated here to be carried by more than a hundred million contemporary Indians, belong in fact to an Indian-specific variety of haplogroup U of a late Pleistocene origin. The latter exhibits a direct common phylogenetic origin with its sister groups found in western Eurasia (Figure 1), but it should not be interpreted in terms of a recent admixture of western Caucasoids with Indians caused by a putative Indo-Aryan invasion 3,000–4,000 years BP.
The U2 Haplogroup which has the highest frequency in India,is an old and very India specific group with it's own groups and sub groups, that are rare elsewhere.and the are in fact called the U2i (u2a,b,c), and is a sister to the European u2e (which itself is rare in europe), Similarly the with the U7 the subcontinent has the highest frequency and variation in northern, northwestern India, and even young mutations of the gene are estimated to be 9k-12k years. Similarly other Western Eurasian haplogroups are either trace amounts all over geography, or have India specific linkages, which makes them quite old. and unlikely as a recent addition.

The migration was not from western Europe, but certainly from Iran.
Are you saying the Iranian DNA is different from West Eurasian DNA Haplogroups? I have never heard of this... (or perhaps you are not aware of the terminology used to describe populations, Iran's genes are more or less, what is referred to as West Eurasian genes.
http://www.biomedcentral.com/1471-2156/5/26

Over 90% of the mtDNAs found in Iran belong to haplogroups HV, TJ, U, N1, N2 and X, commonly found in West Eurasia (Table 2). In contrast to Europe, where H is predominant among the mtDNA haplogroups, in Iran the frequency of haplogroup U (29%) is higher than that of haplogroup H
....
Indian-specific (R5 and Indian-specific M and U2 variants) and East Asian-specific (A, B and East Asian-specific M subgroups) mtDNAs, both, make up less than 4% of the Iranian mtDNA pool.
All of this proves that these genes might have a common point in Iran, but then differentiated out, a long, long time ago:
Since the initial peopling of South and West Asia by anatomically modern humans, when this region may well have provided the initial settlers who colonized much of the rest of Eurasia, the gene flow in and out of India of the maternally transmitted mtDNA has been surprisingly limited. Specifically, our analysis of the mtDNA haplogroups, which are shared between Indian and Iranian populations and exhibit coalescence ages corresponding to around the early Upper Paleolithic, indicates that they are present in India largely as Indian-specific sub-lineages. In contrast, other ancient Indian-specific variants of M and R are very rare outside the sub-continent.
Basically says these genes have been present for a long time in these areas, and have evolved there, the sheer diversity, frequency mutations of these genes indicate the spread during ancient population movements over the subcontinent and Eurasia....and not some super "world conquest event", apart from minor movements which are not enough to cause a big change in the gene pool. this are has evolved independently.

Next Y-DNA,

Separating the post-Glacial coancestry of European and Asian Y chromosomes within haplogroup R1a (PDF)

The conclusion from the paper above
A final comment can be made concerning the relationship between R1a phylogeography and contested origin of Indo-Europeans that is generally, though not solely, attributed to either Anatolia, the South Caucasus or the North Pontic-Caspian regions (Gray and Atkinson56 and references therein). Haplogroup R1a1a occurs in all three of these areas and beyond at informative frequencies (Figure 1). Consistent with its wide geographic spread, the coalescent time estimates of R1a1a correlate with the timing of the recession of the Last Glacial Maximum and predate the upper bound of the age estimate of the Indo-European language tree. Although virtually absent among Romance, Celtic and Semitic speakers, the presence and overall frequency of haplogroup R1a does not distinguish Indo-Iranian, Finno-Ugric, Dravidian or Turkic speakers from each other. Some contrast, however, is unfolding in its subclade frequencies. Although the R1a1a* frequency and diversity is highest among Indo-Aryan and Dravidian speakers, the subhaplogroup R1a1a7-M458 frequency peaks among Slavic and Finno-Ugric peoples. Although this distinction by geography is not directly informative about the internal divisions of these separate language families, it might bear some significance for assessing dispersal models that have been proposed to explain the spread of Indo-Aryan languages in South Asia as it would exclude any significant patrilineal gene flow from East Europe to Asia, at least since the mid-Holocene period.
A prehistory of Indian Y chromosomes: Evaluating demic diffusion scenarios(PDF)

Again the R1a1a* in India is of the indigenous type due to higher variations, presence in both tribe and caste, groups and presence of ancestor groups like the R2, and the highest frequency. These make it a good place for it to be the place of origin for the Asian R1a1a*. Flow from central asia can be ruled out as due to the absence of other central Asian haplogroups in India, which are very rare, and in terms of variation and frequency, India is higher, and a complete lack of other Ancestor/siblings.

It is not necessary, based on the current evidence, to look beyond South Asia for the origins of the paternal heritage of the majority of Indians at the time of the onset of settled agriculture. The perennial concept of people, language, and agriculture arriving to India together through the northwest corridor does not hold up to close scrutiny. Recent claims for a linkage of haplogroups J2, L, R1a, and R2 with a contemporaneous origin for the majority of the Indian castes’ paternal lineages from outside the subcontinent are rejected, although our findings do support a local origin of haplogroups F* and H. Of the others, only J2 indicates an unambiguous recent external contribution, from West Asia rather than Central Asia
Also another paper I posted in the last post: http://www.nature.com/jhg/journal/v54/n1/full/jhg20082a.html

And a note on the later demographic events (ANI/ASI mixing) that shaped Indian demography during the supposed years of AIT/AMT:
http://www.nature.com/jhg/journal/v54/n1/full/jhg20082a.html
It is also important to emphasize what our study has not shown. Although we have documented evidence for mixture in India between about 1,900 and 4,200 years BP, this does not imply migration from West Eurasia into India during this time. On the contrary, a recent study that searched for West Eurasian groups most closely related to the ANI ancestors of Indians failed to find any evidence for shared ancestry between the ANI and groups in West Eurasia within the past 12,500 years (although it is possible that with further sampling and new methods such relatedness might be detected). An alternative possibility that is also consistent with our data is that the ANI and ASI were both living in or near South Asia for a substantial period prior to their mixture. Such a pattern has been documented elsewhere; for example, ancient DNA studies of northern Europeans have shown that Neolithic farmers originating in Western Asia migrated to Europe about 7,500 years BP but did not mix with local hunter gatherers until thousands of years later to form the present-day populations of northern Europe.15,16,44,45
Multiple studies have confirmed this isolatedness now, to the point that even staunch Invasion theorists like thapar now have started cultural migration type nonsense, along with even hardcore AIT cheer leaders like
Witzel have dumped ait, and have half heartedly moved onto migration ...but still not presenting any evidence to back it up, when asked for it.

The migration was not from western Europe, but certainly from Iran.
:dude: Are you saying Iranians migrating to India is the Aryan invasion?

AIT/AMT not about Iranians migrating to India, Iranians split off from Indians and they both go to their respective regions.
Here is basic wiki entry about it:

The Proto-Indo-Iranians, from which the Indo-Aryans developed, are identified with the Sintashta culture (2100–1800 BCE), and the Andronovo culture, which flourished ca. 1800–1400 BCE in the steppes around the Aral sea, present-day Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan. The proto-Indo-Iranians were influenced by the Bactria-Margiana Culture, south of the Andronovo culture, from which they borrowed their distinctive religious beliefs and practices. The Indo-Aryans split off around 1800-1600 BCE from the Iranians, whereafter the Indo-Aryans migrated into the Levant and north-western India.


There are linguistics evidence to show the migration towards central Asia and Europe from India, but of course the problem is that most of these evidences are very subjective and open to interpretation.
Also, if it can show that migration happened in other direction
There is. The AIT/AMT itself, has a huge number of holes, even using their own linguistic systems have plenty of faults, the theory itself creates more issues than the questions it attempts to solve, and some of this points in the opposite direction. For ex, every proposed homeland has huge issues, either with linguistics or time frames, and so on. will maybe post some later.
Even in RV there is plenty of fantasy work done by AIT/AMT, but that of course will be more open to interpretation, even so I think some parts like the rivers etc can be argued quite strongly.
Archaeologists have maintained there is no evidence at all for AIT/AMT, this is accepted even by people Witzel and Erdosy.
 

pmaitra

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:facepalm:

Basically you quoted two studies and added "Yes yes AITAMT proven", without reading things mentioned there.
Please read what I have written again.

I said:
This is an expected observation which only provides genetic evidence of Aryan Migration or Aryan Invasion or a combination of both. This is not the only evidence. There is linguistic evidence, and there is evidence from Vedic texts.
Perhaps not to you, but to me, this certainly is evidence.

Presence of U Haplogroup shows Aryan invasion...errr what? Yeah if you mean Aryan invasion happened 30k years ago (atleast).
Who said U-haplogroup is a monolithic block? However, if one tribe with their distinct haplogroup becomes large in population, spreads around, and mixes with other populations, then there will be some evidence to link all these descendant populations. They will no longer be a monolithic group, but they will have something in common by virtue of their common ancestry.
Then, what is the other explanation of common haplogroups in India and Iran? These two haplogroups independently developed in India and Iran, and magically turned out to be the same haplogroup?
Completely forgetting time frames posted, and assuming the U Haplogroup to be one monolithic block, despite it being a very region specific subgroup whose mutations date back atleast 30-50k years, but was brought in 3500 years ago....hmmm.
The genetic mtdna material available in India is a result of movements that occurred atleast 20-30k years ago, or even older.

The Place of the Indian mtDNA Variants in the Global Network of Maternal Lineages and the Peopling of the Old World



http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0960982200800573


The U2 Haplogroup which has the highest frequency in India,is an old and very India specific group with it's own groups and sub groups, that are rare elsewhere.and the are in fact called the U2i (u2a,b,c), and is a sister to the European u2e (which itself is rare in europe), Similarly the with the U7 the subcontinent has the highest frequency and variation in northern, northwestern India, and even young mutations of the gene are estimated to be 9k-12k years. Similarly other Western Eurasian haplogroups are either trace amounts all over geography, or have India specific linkages, which makes them quite old. and unlikely as a recent addition.



Are you saying the Iranian DNA is different from West Eurasian DNA Haplogroups? I have never heard of this... (or perhaps you are not aware of the terminology used to describe populations, Iran's genes are more or less, what is referred to as West Eurasian genes.
http://www.biomedcentral.com/1471-2156/5/26
Ok, let me make this clear.

I do not subscribe to the theory that western Europeans migrated to India. For me, Aryan means people from Iran. I have already said this, but since you have chosen not to read the previous posts, I am stating this again. I am not going to waste my time defending a theory that western Europeans migrated to India, because I never claimed so. If you want to counter a position I do not hold, then you are countering a strawman.
All of this proves that these genes might have a common point in Iran, but then differentiated out, a long, long time ago:
Maybe. Maybe not. It is impossible determine at what point in time people diverged.
Basically says these genes have been present for a long time in these areas, and have evolved there, the sheer diversity, frequency mutations of these genes indicate the spread during ancient population movements over the subcontinent and Eurasia....and not some super "world conquest event", apart from minor movements which are not enough to cause a big change in the gene pool. this are has evolved independently.
Nobody claimed some super "world conquest event." You are reading things that I have not written.

There is a reason I stated AIT/AMT. This means, I am open to both the possibilities - migration and invasion.
What is the conclusion of the paper above?

The paper clearly states co-ancestry of haplogroup R1a, and after R1a you add 1, and you get a descendant set of R1a1. This means, this paper acknowledges that there is some genetic link between Europeans and Asians (Indians included).
Please check Figure 2 of the link you posted.
Again the R1a1a* in India is of the indigenous type due to higher variations, presence in both tribe and caste, groups and presence of ancestor groups like the R2, and the highest frequency. These make it a good place for it to be the place of origin for the Asian R1a1a*. Flow from central asia can be ruled out as due to the absence of other central Asian haplogroups in India, which are very rare, and in terms of variation and frequency, India is higher, and a complete lack of other Ancestor/siblings.
R1a1a* might be indigenous, but R1a is not, and that establishes a genetic link across various regions linking India with Central Asia, Iran, and beyond. Again, read the link you posted.

Is this how you plan to debunk AIT/AMT? Looks like you are making my point acutally.
This paper tries to argue that Brahmins' haplogroups are autochtonous, which means, from within the same place, and it uses age of haplogroups to come to that conclusion. This paper does not rule our external migration or invasion.

In other words:
It is one thing to say there has been migration, and another thing to say that the caste system came about because some external ethnicities came and established themselves as a caste. Please do not conflate the two things.

From your paper:

The spatial distribution maps of Y-haplogroup R1a1 generated by the Kriging procedure using SURFER version 8.0. (a) Spatial frequency distribution of Y-haplogroup R1a1* across Eurasia, Central Asia and the Indian subcontinent. (b) Spatial distribution of Y-haplogroup R1a1*-associated diversity based on microsatellite markers.

And a note on the later demographic events (ANI/ASI mixing) that shaped Indian demography during the supposed years of AIT/AMT:
http://www.nature.com/jhg/journal/v54/n1/full/jhg20082a.html

Multiple studies have confirmed this isolatedness now, to the point that even staunch Invasion theorists like thapar now have started cultural migration type nonsense, along with even hardcore AIT cheer leaders like
Witzel have dumped ait, and have half heartedly moved onto migration ...but still not presenting any evidence to back it up, when asked for it.
You have posted the same link twice. Anyway, you might as well help me understand one thing.

Please explain how they calculated the age of haplogroups. Please don't toss terms as "Spearman Correlation" at me. I know what it is. I want you to be able to explain to me how the age of haplogroups was estimated.

:dude: Are you saying Iranians migrating to India is the Aryan invasion?
Did I say that?

Iranians migrating to India would be AMT.
Iranians invading India would be AIT.
Either of these two are possibilities.

I never said Iranians migrating to India is AIT.
AIT/AMT not about Iranians migrating to India, Iranians split off from Indians and they both go to their respective regions.
Either Iranians split off from India, or Indians split off from Iranians.

The presence of R1a (purple) should indicate something, and the absence of R1b (red) should also explain something.


Here is basic wiki entry about it:

The Proto-Indo-Iranians, from which the Indo-Aryans developed, are identified with the Sintashta culture (2100–1800 BCE), and the Andronovo culture, which flourished ca. 1800–1400 BCE in the steppes around the Aral sea, present-day Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan. The proto-Indo-Iranians were influenced by the Bactria-Margiana Culture, south of the Andronovo culture, from which they borrowed their distinctive religious beliefs and practices. The Indo-Aryans split off around 1800-1600 BCE from the Iranians, whereafter the Indo-Aryans migrated into the Levant and north-western India.
You should also explore the theory involving chariots. That is closely related to the Andronovo culture.
There is. The AIT/AMT itself, has a huge number of holes, even using their own linguistic systems have plenty of faults, the theory itself creates more issues than the questions it attempts to solve, and some of this points in the opposite direction. For ex, every proposed homeland has huge issues, either with linguistics or time frames, and so on. will maybe post some later.
Of course there are holes in AIT/AMT just like there are holes in ANI/ASI. There is no way we can come to some definitive statistical conclusion. Please don't ask me why, since I have already explained why earlier in this thread.
Even in RV there is plenty of fantasy work done by AIT/AMT, but that of course will be more open to interpretation, even so I think some parts like the rivers etc can be argued quite strongly.
Archaeologists have maintained there is no evidence at all for AIT/AMT, this is accepted even by people Witzel and Erdosy.
ANI/ASI is also fantasy work, and most of such research suffers from confirmation bias.
 
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pmaitra

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This is the reason I consider it a waste of time to involve in a actual debate with you - you rarely have the ability to understand the consequences of the nonsense you talk about. AIT is about Aryans - who were Europeans and Central asians invading/Migrating into India around 1500BC. That would mean that Aryans/Europeans who were living in the ICE age in the ice covered parts of the world during the ICE age decided to migrate into India during a time, when ice age would have ended in Europe. Thats as retarded as it can get logically speaking
Oh yeah, so ICE age ended around 1500 BC?

All the contrarian crap are from a earlier research papers which have not stood the test of time or peer review. So you have no evidence to actually support the crap you are touting as true
Actually I have a lot of evidence, and I have posted two evidences in the post above, one of them, ironically from the very research paper that is being used to counter my points. :lol:

The genetics which I am sure you dont have the capability to understand. As I said, @TejasMK3 has already posted the links. Its not my problem that your ability to understand genetics is limited. I wont waste my time with people like you any more than I waste it with creationists.
I am convinced you are an expert in genetics. Explain to me how the age of a haplogroup is determined.
 
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Mad Indian

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Oh yeah, so ICE age ended around 1500 BC?


Actually I have a lot of evidence, and I have posted two evidences in the post above, one of them, ironically from the very research paper that is being used to counter my points. :lol:


I am convinced you are an expert in genetics. Explain to me how the age of a haplogroup is determined.

Dude, believe whatever BS you want. If @Razor has any actual doubts , I will clarify it to him. Anything discussion with you is going to be useless given your tendency to argue for winning rather than knowing the truth
 
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pmaitra

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Dude, believe whatever BS you want. If @Razor has any actual doubts , I will clarify it to him. Anything discussion with you is going to be useless given your tendency to argue for winning rather than knowing the truth
Ok, so you don't know how the age of the haplogroup was computed.

Got it.

I asked because I don't know.
 

pmaitra

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This is mainly for @Mad Indian, who remarked “Anything discussion with you is going to be useless given your tendency to argue for winning rather than knowing the truth.” Truth? How do we know something is the truth? All of these are theories.

This is also for those that believe that ANI/ASI has somehow “debunked” AIT/AMT. How can we debunk Theory A with Theory B, when both are untested, and I daresay untestable theories?

I took this picture at the American Museum of Natural History. Click to expand.
IMAG1285.jpg
 

pmaitra

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I know you did not mean it but....:p
I meant every bit of it.

I cited a research that I have no clue about, or doesn't exist, or exists but I don't completely understand.

I have no clue about the research, so to make myself sound credible, I could have added some terms like "peer reviewed."
 

Khagesh

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:biggrin2:

But no, I think you are taking all this too seriously. Probably even the Hindu Extremists look dangerous from where you stand.

Anyhow my take is you are not doing justice to the immense effort these researchers make doing hard research and after that writing abstracts and stating their hypothesis and rationale for it upfront. Studded with a lot of easy to understand graphics for the enthusiasts to follow or for interested people to understand. Moorjani even stated a para with - "It is also important to emphasize what our study has not shown", imply that they even caution what should not be understood from it. Arre bhai sab kuch to kar diya ab kya bache ki jaan loge. You are not dealing with idiots when they say ANI/ASI. People on the thread merely picked up what was said by researchers. If you believe they picked out of context then establish context. Simple only. Instead you have complained about small number of Individuals. I mean, come on, they are studying several genetic loci because it is a study of genes and not of individuals. An individual can have several different genetic locus and what the 'differences' that they state is merely a reasonable part of the bulk of these.

This is just the like the way I do not need to understand Computational Fluid Dynamics to understand why things fly or why the kite takes a jhonk or why the wing will also produce skin drag and the generally expected demands on different types of wings.

But then you are denying even the paper of 2009 which was relevant for identifying ANI and ASI. What to say of the later paper regarding latest admixture events. And all this when the earliest admixture event is yet to be even researched.

Anyhow remember before you dismiss all these studies, some of these have indicated some relevance for genetic conditions also that are linked to the basic hypothesis that are used in these papers. I remember Reich talked about recessive genetic conditions that are not linked to the usually suspected inbreeding but instead are linked to the founder event and small sizes of populations at that time. Are the researchers that work on genetic conditions also denying these hypothesis?

Added later - http://www.natureasia.com/en/nindia/article/10.1038/nindia.2013.116
Some groups like the Vysya from Andhra Pradesh have not experienced any gene flow from outside their group for about 3000 years. Such situations lead to inbreeding which lead to population specific diseases. One such example is the "inability of digesting anesthesia during surgical procedures by the Vysyas", Thangaraj explains.
Now should researchers also ignore these kind of observations that are also part and parcel of the conclusions.


Sorry but I differ.
 
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Mad Indian

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Stop politicizing science. It's not right.

AIT itself is a political bull shit. It has evidence whatsoever other than some identity crisised Indians trying desperately to claim descendence from Europeans and some dravidian parties trying to hold onto their political life line by keeping the AIT BS as true.

BTW, did you go through the links given by @TejasMK3 ? I am thinking you dint because you dint want to know the truth and prefer to live in your made up european ancestral links?
 

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