Then why Republic Of India's boundary changed? Republic Of India is not an empire for sure.
Forming all India empire was indeed an ambition, i gave the quote from Alauddin Khilji. But very few dynasty succeeded, you know after Fall of Harshabardhana Kanouj became heart land of India and Pal, Pratihar and Rashtrukuts clashed there for 200 years only to gain Kanuj thus to become most powerful kingdom of India?
Anyone would, with an iota of education, know that a 'Republic' cannot be an 'Empire'.
In the olden days there were Kings who possessed land, acquired more through treaties or wars, and that entity became an 'Empire'. An Empire is
an extensive group of states or countries ruled over by a single monarch or even by a sovereign state.
When the People became the 'Kings', these Empires became 'Republics'. In other word,
a state in which supreme power is held by the people and their elected representatives, and which has an elected or nominated president rather than a monarch.
Why did the boundary of the Republic of India change? How has the boundaries changed of the Republic of India? Are you meaning the loss of territories because of the 1962 War? Wars and annexations, in case you did not know, changes boundaries. In modern times, it is rare, because there is the UN, but even so, some countries do not care for what the UN decrees!
It is a figment of your imagination, and of people like you, who have far-fetched notions that India ever existed as today or there was anything called the 'heartland' of 'India' of your fancy.
Germany's boundary also changed, i have shown you, then how you call German nationalism, did not it's boundary change?
Germany of yore, had nothing called 'German nationalism'. The 'nationalism' was restricted to their regional loyalties.
Germany consisted of numerous independent states, such as Prussia, Bavaria and Saxony. The formal unification of Germany into a politically and administratively integrated nation state officially occurred on 18 January 1871.
The reason for the various German speaking areas becoming one and thus changing of the boundaries, has many reasons. One of the reasons is that the Congress of Vienna in 1815 created the
Deutscher Bund, which was a a loose association of 39 German states in Central Europe, aimed basically to coordinate the economies of separate German-speaking countries and to replace the former Holy Roman Empire.
May I request you to study history and not meander through it in a selective and footloose manner, just to give credence to your fallacious propagation of your favourite hobby horse?
Pakistan was part of British India, Mughal India, but not of Republic Of India. It is simple
But you cant deny before 1947, Pakistan and Bangladesh were part of India. This partition excluded large former Indian territory from India.
May I once again take the privilege to indicate your shallow selective reading and understanding of issues?
It was not only Pakistan and Bangladesh (East Pakistan then and hence Pakistan alone) which were a part of British India, but also Lower Burma too since it was already a part of British India; Upper Burma was added in 1886, and the resulting union, Burma, was administered as a province until 1937, when it became a separate British colony, gaining its own independence in 1948.
Republic of India's map was also very different just after 1947, you know how many princely states were there, and Junagar, Hydrabad and Kashmir case.
Indeed, but then maybe you have not read the
Indian Independence Act 1947[/i].
This Act of theParliament of the United Kingdom that partitioned British India into the two new independent dominions of India andPakistan.
The important provisions of this Act were:
The Act's most important provisions were:
"¢ the division of British India into the two new and fully sovereign dominions of India and Pakistan, with effect from 15 August 1947;
"¢ the partition of the provinces of Bengal and Punjab between the two new countries;
"¢ the establishment of the office of Governor-General in each of the two new countries, as representative of the Crown;
"¢ the conferral of complete legislative authority upon the respective Constituent Assemblies of the two new countries;
"¢ the termination of British suzerainty over the princely states, with effect from 15 August 1947, and recognized the right of states to accede to either dominion
"¢ the dropping of the use of the title "Emperor of India" by the British monarch (this was subsequently done by King George VI by royal proclamation on 22 June 1948).
Therefore, if the Princely States exercised the right to accede to either Dominion, would the map not change?