According to Google, the Moslem population of India is currently at 176 million. In 2010, according to the British newspaper, The Guardian, the Moslem population of Pakistan was 178,097,000, or 96.4 per cent of the population. So there is something approaching parity in the Moslem populations of both India and Pakistan. My question is that with the foundation in 1947 of Pakistan, an independent Moslem state on the Indian subcontinent and a proclaimed haven for the subcontinent's Moslems, why have slightly less than half of the subcontinent's Moslems chosen to live in India and not Pakistan? Lack of the means to move or travel may explain part of this question, but is far from a complete answer for a population 176 million people. Just why is it that so many Moslems of the Indian subcontinent have chosen and still choose to live and reside in India and not Pakistan? Now 67 years after Partition and Independence, the differences between the two states are clear, even glaring. But this was not always so. Not long after Partition and Independence, through the 1950s and 60s, the differences were not so great. So why wasn't there a greater movement of Moslems from India to Pakistan during this period? My questions cover the full 67-year period from Partition and Independence to the present.