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Uhh, no.Unfortunately, that's not what @Rage was saying. Rage didn't say 'real GDP expressed in 2005-06 dollars will be lower than real GDP expressed in 2010 dollars'. Rage said that real GDP deflated using the 2005-06 deflator (with whatever G&S weighting in their deflator basket) will systemically undercount real GDP independent of the deflator. I was asking if Rage knew something about the characteristics of the Indian deflator that all of us didn't.
I said:
Let me break it down for you:Even considering this foolish "base year" argument, which has nothing to do with the comparative statics of real GDP, India's real real GDP, if it were to be calculated as a number and measured in relation with China's real GDP as a separate (and more accurate) comparison of economic performance, would be much higher than it is at present since India's real GDP has a base year of 2004-05, while China's has 2010 (and much of India's post-liberalization inflation has been in the intervening period).
- Comparative statics
- Real GDP base year and deflator
- Inflation
Conclusion: if expressed in (comparable) 2010 dollar terms, India's Real GDP would be significantly higher than it's current valuation because of the intervening inflation.
Don't ignore what I said about China's calculation of it's Nominal GDP.
And what in God's good name do you mean "systemically undercount real GDP independent of the deflator"? How can you retroactively "undercount" real GDP "independent of the deflator"? A lot of technical jargonistic rubbish without any meaning.
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